The inscription on the cross was written in three languages: Greek, Hebrew, and Latin -- no Aramaic is listed.
Is it posssible that "Aramaic" is a term invented by linguistic scholars to describe the Hebrew of 30 AD with all of its additional Syrian and Chaldean words absorbed into it from the preceding centuries?.
One would expect that there would be a lot more words in the Hebrew vocabulary 1400 years after the Pentateuch was written, just as the English language of today as compared to that of 200 years ago -- but it is still called "English".
Yes, you have Aramaic spoken in the NT, for example in Mk.5:41.
Is it posssible that "Aramaic" is a term invented by linguistic scholars to describe the Hebrew of 30 AD with all of its additional Syrian and Chaldean words absorbed into it from the preceding centuries?.
No, because parts of Daniel are in Aramaic.
One would expect that there would be a lot more words in the Hebrew vocabulary 1400 years after the Pentateuch was written, just as the English language of today as compared to that of 200 years ago -- but it is still called "English".
Aramaic is a different language then Hebrew, though very similiar. It is a branch of the northwest Semitic languages.
Is there some reason you are concerned about it?