Posted on 09/11/2023 9:23:22 AM PDT by ebb tide
“...baptism...How do we know?”
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It is quite simple really. The answer is the grammatical-historical method of interpretation.
If you read it saying that salvation is a free gift for anyone who believes in Jesus Christ and take that to mean just what it says, then you will believe exactly the same thing that all the others believe who also believe what it says.
“Believe in the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved.”
However if you redefine any of the key terms, you can make a new religion. Teach, for example, that the word “believe” means to do the necessary good works, it only remains to have some way of declaring which works amount to believing, and one other small thing, to have some way to explain away all those pesky “not by works” verses like Titus 3:5-7.
Beware! If you just believe that book, then you will be catigated as a “fundamentalist”, a term which presumes that there are in fact foundational doctrines to Christianity and that people who do not believe those doctrines, including salvation by grace, are not Christian.
I am answering your question as if it were sincere, which if you will permit me to be honest, I seriously doubt. I do not know you and in my culture I am expected to give you the benefit of the doubt in these things. In my 52 years of ministry, this being asked in what I thought was genuine curiosity has been quite rare. Just like “Where did Cain get his wife?” some people seem to think it is a “gotcha question” or that is what they want it to be.
The folks here on FR are the dearest and best and yet even here there are some who will twist one’s words. This you well know. How is it hard to think that people do not do the same with the Word of God? Do you really want to know the Bible? Is there no living God Who can show you what He means in His Book? If your question is sincere, then you ought to have asked God directly. If you have asked Him and gotten nothing but silence, then you need to get to the bottom of that. Nothing is more important.
“Sola scriptura” is not scriptural.
Move along now.
And those SPOKEN words were recorded for posterity.
Neither is Catholicism, Peter as the first Pope or the ever virgin sinless Mary.
Absurd, opinionated heresy. The Bible is the Word of God.
I’ve read of blasphemy against the Holy Spirit of God, and blasphemy against God, in general, buy blasphemy against Mary? If you can show me where that is in the Bible, We’ll talk. Oh, wait...it’s another one of those extra-Biblical things again, isn’t it? No thanks.
First, show me where “sola scriptura” is in the Bible.
And they won’t.
Because they can’t and still remain Protestant.
We do get to read some interesting contrivances such as the hidden church theory, how everyone apparently agreed on all of the books of the Bible, how the Catholic Church is evil because they say so, etc.
Not only are we to uphold the written Word of God as authority, but also we are to rightly divide the Word of Truth.
2 Timothy 2:14-16
King James Version
14 Of these things put them in remembrance, charging them before the Lord that they strive not about words to no profit, but to the subverting of the hearers.
15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
16 But shun profane and vain babblings: for they will increase unto more ungodliness.
So how do we do that?
Isaiah 28:10
King James Version
10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:
We must ask the following questions when rightly dividing the Word of God....
Who is the Author?
Who is the author addressing?
What is the time period?
Does the Scripture have double reference meaning?
Are you a Jew or a Gentile?
Who is the Apostle chosen by God to deliver the Church Age Dispensation of Grace?
Romans 11:13
King James Version
13 For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office:
1 Timothy 2:7
King James Version
7 Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not;) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity.
2 Timothy 1:11
King James Version
11 Whereunto I am appointed a preacher, and an apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles.
Paul was to the Gentiles, as Peter was to the Jews (also known as the circumcision)
Galatians 2:7-9
King James Version
7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:)
9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
The Apostle to the Gentiles who revealed the message of Salvation by Grace, reinforced through Scripture the Authority of Sound Doctrine:
Galatians 1:8-9
King James Version
8 But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
9 As we said before, so say I now again, if any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
assage
Resources
Hebrew/Greek
Your Content
Ephesians 2:5-9
King James Version
5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;)
6 And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus:
7 That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.
8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.
(law and works does not mix)
Romans 11:5-7
King James Version
5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.
6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then it is no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.
7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded.
And before someone counters with James 2, I would argue that one needs to rightly divide the Word of Truth.
Who is the Author?
Who is the author addressing?
What is the time period?
Does the Scripture have double reference meaning?
Are you a Jew or a Gentile?
Who is the Apostle chosen by God to deliver the Church Age Dispensation of Grace?
Regarding an excellent video application to guide the reader to rightly divide the Word of God I highly recommend...
https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=VnTj—yWydY&pp=ygUnOTklIGNocmlzdGlhbnMgaGlkZSB0aGlzIGFsYXJtOG5nIHZpZGVv
Question number 1 is based on a falsehood. See Revelation, written by John, and Jesus told him, “What thou seest, write in a book...”
If the first question is based on a lie, why bother with the rest.
Good one, ebb!
Who could possibly dispute that?
Never mind.
HOW MANY times do you have to be shown?
Nobody went to Heaven until Jesus led captivity (O.T.saints (believers)) from Paradise, when He was resurrected. They were all, including the thief on the cross, preserved in Paradise, under the Old Testament until the resurrection. The thief on the cross died before the resurrection, as the soldiers broke the legs of those crucified with Jesus, so they would die more quickly, before the Sabbath. So, then, the thief was with Jesus that same day, in Paradise, awaiting the resurrection, when he, along with all believers throughout the previous history, were translated from Paradise to Heaven.
A ‘Vast Ye Land Lubbers!
Scallewags be Boarden this Vessel shall be run Thru with the Cutlass !
Ahoy ye Magic Cookie eat’n Curs!
Ebbs Captains be sleeping with FISHES!!!
At the risk of sounding like a Catholic:
BINGO!
>>ELEVEN
Who finally did decide which books were inspired and therefore belonged to the New Testament? Shortly before 400 A. D. a General Council of the Catholic Church, using the infallible authority which Christ had given to His own divine institution, finally decided which books really belonged to the New Testament and which did not.
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Either the Church at this General Council was infallible, or it was not.
If the Church was infallible then, why is it not infallible now? If the Church was not infallible then, in that case the New Testament is not worth the paper it is written on, because internal evidences of authenticity and inspiration are inconclusive and because the work of this Council cannot now be rechecked; this is obvious from reply to next question.<<
Hey. look! You answered your own question!:
>>TWENTY-FIVE
During the Middle Ages, did the Catholic Church manifest hostility to the Bible as her adversaries claim? Under stress of special circumstances, various regulations were made by the Church to protect the people from being spiritually poisoned by the corrupted and distorted translations of the Bible; hence opposition to the Waldensians, Albigensians, Wycliff and Tyndale.
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COMMENT: Individual churchmen may at times have gone too far in their zeal, not to belittle the Bible, but to protect it. There is no human agency in which authority is always exercised blamelessly.<<
Did you say NO HUMAN AGENCY? Or perhaps the Church which is composed of humans is not a human agency? What’s it going to be?
““Sola scriptura” is not scriptural.
Move along now.
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You are the one that posted the debate. I challenged by the Authority of the Word of God. Because you follow a false doctrine, you must choose to denounce the Inspired Word of God and to deny Jesus Christ. THE WORD BECAME FLESH
God. Proverbs: EVERY Word of God is pure. He is a shield into them that put their trust in Him. Add thou NOT unto His Words, lest He reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.
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