Posted on 11/13/2022 12:31:15 PM PST by Jan_Sobieski
A new documentary claims that a “mistranslation” of the Bible is to blame for Christians believing that homosexuality is a sin.
The film, 1946: The Mistranslation That Shifted Culture, directed by self-identified “lesbian Christian” Sharon “Rocky” Roggio, attempts to chronicle how the word “homosexual” came to be used in the pages in Scripture and purports to offer “recently unearthed evidence that challenges deeply-held beliefs about LGBTQ+ people and their place in God’s kingdom.”
According to Roggio, the word homosexual did not appear in any version of the Bible until 1946, when translators for the Revised Standard Version (RSV) used it in their translation of 1 Corinthians 6:9.
The filmmaker argues that translators chose to use the word homosexual for the Greek words malakoi and arsenokoitai, which, according to the film’s website, “translate loosely” to “effeminacy” and “pervert” or “sexual pervert...”
(Excerpt) Read more at christianpost.com ...
Luke 17:28Likewise also as it was in the days of Lot; they did eat, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they builded; 29but the same day that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them all. 30Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed.
Romans 1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: 27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
Okay. How about sodomite? Is that better?
The Bible is VERY clear in meaning, especially in contexts. It means men having sex with men and the Bible makes it clear that such is a sin.
According to Roggio, the word homosexual did not appear in any version of the Bible until 1946, when translators for the Revised Standard Version (RSV) used it in their translation of 1 Corinthians 6:9.
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Her logic is weak.
Prior to 1946 most societies had animus against it, including non-Biblically based societies.
So how can a novel translation in 1946 have caused it?
She acts as if Christendom had no prior prohibitions against sodomy prior to 1946?
What ahistorical foolishness.
How about faggot for the translation?
You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination.
Pretty straightforward.
None at all, according to Darrell L. Bock, senior research professor of New Testament Studies at Dallas Theological Seminary, who says the issue is not the term itself, but the context in which it functions.
“The background culturally is shown by texts like Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13, which describe any laying down of a man with another man as one would with a woman as a sin,” Bock told CP. “In addition, the language from Paul in Romans 1:26-27 has Paul describe such acts in generic terms, not merely in abusive contexts that it is claimed limits the scope of what is referred to in 1 Cor. 6:9.”
Furthermore, Bock added, the passage in 1 Corinthians is simply detailing an active and more passive participant in the act, but the act itself is what is being discussed in either case, whether one is the active or passive participant.
So, the new monk goes to the head monk to ask him about this. He points out that if there was an error in the first copy, that error would be continued in all of the other copies. The head monk says, “We have been copying from the copies for centuries, but you make a good point, my son.”
So, he goes down into the cellar with one of the copies to check it against the original. Hours later, nobody has seen him. So, one of the monks goes downstairs to look for him. He hears sobbing coming from the back of the cellar and finds the old monk leaning over one of the original books crying. He asks what’s wrong.
“You idiots”, he says, with anger and sadness in his eyes, “the word was celebrate!”
Horse hockey.
The Bible has lots of passages forbidding “men laying with men as with women”. The meaning is very clear to all but those who do not want to hear.
It’s the same way they read the constitution. Written in plain english that anyone can understand... but we need them to translate the true meaning of plain words for us.
Hah hah!
These nutcases just can’t grasp why God loathes homosexuality. The reason is it mocks the ultimate reality of Christ and His Bride, of which the union of a man and woman is demonstrative. Covenants in the Bible were sraled with blood. The covenant between a man and virgin bride is sealed with blood with thr rupturing of the hymen ( yeh yeh, I know hymens get busted without intercourse, but the point stands). Think about the symbolism of the butthole and the vagina. One speaks of death and corruption, the other of life
Homosexuals ARE perverts.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10
9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor wantons, nor buggerers,
10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor railers, nor extortioners shall inherit the kingdom of God.
Scripture forbids both the guy doing and the guy being done to, clear as day.
Also clear as day is that advocacy for homosexuality, and homosexuality too, are symptoms of, fruit associated with, having been turned over to depraved minds.
Sharon can take that up with Jesus at her judgment. I’m sure He’ll be interested.
Anything to justify their pet sin.
If you are reading the RSV, you aren’t getting anything like the King James version, which is fully Protestant, sourced from Aramaic, Greek and Hebrew. Most of the new books are published by and with approval of the Vatican. For those of you born after 1611 or so, the reason FOR the King James is because the Catholics wouldn’t allow and would kill those who studied, translated, or preached anything other than RCC dogma.
Come away from the Church in Rome, come to Jesus. There is freedom and true forgiveness here.
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