“Did you find that is the exclusive use, other than the single exception you cited? That is, is it only used for “prophetic visions,” or also for ordinary sights?”
As I said previously, of the 11 in Acts, 1 dealt with Moses and the burning bush, which might be considered a ‘sight’. The rest are all prophetic visions.
So 10/11 in Acts are prophetic visions, the sight of the burning bush, and the vision of the transfiguration.
But having now settled that, I'm not seeing the point. Of course Moses and Elijah appearing on the mount was a vision of some kind--people from heaven do not ordinarily appear to earthlings, whether in corporeal or just visual form-- but how does that bear on the original question?