No. He gave her to John and only John. The Greek is clear on this.
And she is the New Eve..... And like Eve was born without Original Sin.....
Only in Roman Catholicism; but not in the New Testament.
For this to be the case it would have to contradict a number of passages in the Bible.
There is clear Biblical evidence that Mary viewed herself as a sinner.
In connection with the birth of a baby boy, the Mosaic law commanded that, at the end of her purification period, a mother should offer “a lamb one year old for a holocaust, and a young pigeon or turtledove as a sacrifice for sin.”
Regarding a woman who could not afford to offer a lamb, the law stated: “She is to take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, one for the holocaust and the other for the sacrifice for sin.” (Lev. 12:6-8, Catholic Jerusalem Bible)
Had Mary been sinless, she would have misrepresented matters had she offered a sin offering. Yet the Bible reports that Joseph and Mary came to offer, “in accordance with what is said in the Law of the Lord, a pair of turtledoves or two young pigeons.” (Luke 2:24, JB)
By complying with a law applying to sinful humans, Mary acknowledged that she was imperfect.