Posted on 01/01/2020 7:47:33 AM PST by Salvation
Monsignor Pope Ping!
So much error has occurred due to the Council of Ephesus' ruling on this as Rome has completely abused this decision.
Scripture never refers to Mary as the "Mother of God".
Rome has again departed from Scripture in favor of "tradition".
So what?
It has led to a whole bunch of Mariolatry in Roman Catholicism.
Mariolatry... what a laugh!
If it weren’t so false it might be funny.
Rome has again departed from Scripture in favor of "tradition".2 Thessalonians 2:15 - Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.
So, we know what the traditions taught by the epistles are. But are there additional traditions that the apostles taught by word, and, if so, how do you prove the traditions not written down were actually taught by the apostles?
Rome has taken great liberty with this and the other two passages that mention tradition.
However, Rome completely ignores the context of these passages. Why? Because if they don't their "traditions" will be found very un-Scriptural.
However, the very early church considered tradition with what was found in the Scriptures.
It's not the wide open tradition that Rome has developed over the centuries.
It has been asked for numerous times.
And IF Roman Catholics are honest they will have to admit the ECFs equated tradition with what was in the Scriptures.
Not this mysterious definition of "tradition" Roman Catholics try to foster on everyone.
So, we know what the traditions taught by the epistles are. But are there additional traditions that the apostles taught by word, and, if so, how do you prove the traditions not written down were actually taught by the apostles?"As I have already observed, the Church, having received this preaching and this faith, although scattered throughout the whole world, yet, as if occupying but one house, carefully preserves it. She also believes these points [of doctrine] just as if she had but one soul, and one and the same heart, and she proclaims them, and teaches them, and hands them down, with perfect harmony, as if she possessed only one mouth. For, although the languages of the world are dissimilar, yet the import of the tradition is one and the same."
Nice quote, doesn’t answer the question.
If your point is true that not all Christian teachings were not completed with the apostles, how could the first century believer know what was necessary for salvation? Or did they have sufficient information at that time?
And why should any current Christian be held accountable for beliefs the early Christians were not taught by the apostles?
If your point is true that not all Christian teachings were not completed with the apostles, how could the first century believer know what was necessary for salvation? Or did they have sufficient information at that time?In any age, it would seem that there are certain bare basics that are required to be taught to (and accepted by) the believer. The Apostles' Creed seems to fit that (by definition). However, there's more than just knowing and believing:
And why should any current Christian be held accountable for beliefs the early Christians were not taught by the apostles?
So, what teachings necessary for our salvation and spiritual life are not taught either explicitly or implicitly in Scripture? And how do you prove that?
So, what teachings necessary for our salvation and spiritual life are not taught either explicitly or implicitly in Scripture? And how do you prove that?How do you prove that the collection of writings that make up Scripture (particularly the New Testament) are exactly the ones that belong there (no more and no less)? When was that decided and by whom?
You answer my question first, and I’ll answer yours.
You answer my question first, and Ill answer yours.Ok. Ill make an honest attempt to answer to your last questions and would appreciate that you do likewise.
So, what teachings necessary for our salvation and spiritual life are not taught either explicitly or implicitly in Scripture? And how do you prove that?I dont have an exhaustive list, but I do have at least one example: the obligation of Sunday Worship and its supplanting of the Jewish Sabbath. Its definitely not explicit in Scripture and its a stretch to say that its implicit. Of course, there are a few references to worship occurring on the Lords Day. However, thats different than claiming that Scripture mandates it. If you can provide that definitive info, then you can answer the Seventh-Day Adventists who claim You may read the Bible from Genesis to Revelation, and you will not find a single line authorizing the sanctification of Sunday. Nevertheless, for centuries (millennia?), many (most?) Christians recognize it's necessary for salvation (myself included). While not explicit in Scripture, its arguably consistent with it. Even so, it still needed some time to develop. The very first Christians were Jewish and probably would have continued keeping the Jewish Sabbath until instructed that it was no longer binding (whereas the Sunday obligation is). I cannot provide proof (certainly none that a Seventh-Day Adventist would accept) other than what has been historically observed by several Christian writers over the centuries.
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