What if both spouses transition?
Is that like no big deal?
Therefore, no matter how much genital mutilation and hormonal sabotage goes on, if it started out a man-woman marriage, it is still a man-woman marriage.
Unless the self-mutilating spouse intended this from the git-go. In which case, the marriage should be found to be null, since at the time of the vows, one partner was insane and/or intending to defraud the other.
Am I getting this right?
So they are still a man-woman marriage, regardless.
Help me out here, somebody, if I'm wrong.