[ravenwolf]

What do you mean would have said? he did say it, John 1:42.
the Greek writers had no intention of deceiving any one so they
used the aramaic word cephas so people would know exactly what Jesus
said.

[metmom]

Only in a couple specific instances.

Outside pf that, NO ONE knows what was said in Aramaic when the NT was written down in Greek.

And speculation does no good as it’s just opinion.