>> Do you think, under God, that you can makeThat is, the covenant sealed by the marital pledge of fidelity is validated from then on and according to the conditional boundary stated: (a) on the one hand, as long as they both shall live (be physically alive); and, on the other hand, until death do them part (one or both shall become physically dead).ita vow of fidelity again to a second, third, fourth, etc while any of the objects of a previous vow is still physically alive? <<
To attempt to re-vow to someone else under this condition would be utterly inconsistent with sanity, let alone holiness.
There are Christians that teach you can only marry once - even in the terrible event of death of your spouse
It is true that some interpreters, looking at the passages:
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife . . .insist that this means that a bishop/elder must be married, and that only once, ever. It would be hard to convince me that either part of that presumed standard is iron-clad. But I would say that no man, having divorced his wife according to man's law, thence celibate or not, should be admitted to the function of overseer or elder of the church; nor should a man whose wife, still alive, has divorced him according to man's law, or has separated from him.
Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well" (1 Tim. 3:2a,b,12 KJV)
". . . ordain elders in every city, as I had appointed thee:
If any be blameless, the husband of one wife, . . ." (Tit. 1:5c,d-6a,b KJV)
It is true, but not commonly known that John Wesley, the Anglican priest and key founder of Methodism, was so distantly separated from his wife and not in conjugal felicity with her for years into his evangelical ministry, that he was not aware of her death and burial until some weeks after the event. But certainly he was continent in te years of his peregrinations, else he would have been seen as a charlatan, unable to keep up a front of holiness among the very practical farmers, coal-miners, and worker-class constituents. Ah, sad the degree that his wife rejected his godly calling!
There are some Scripture-manglers that claim if one of the partners of a marriage of worldlings become saved, then applying Romans 7:4-6 gives that person the freedom to just separate from or divorce the unsaved member of the union, and then freed to go ahead and make marital union with another who is likewise "loosed" from an unsaved partner. And that is where your logic about divorce leads you, I believe.
The forging of a marital union, once willingly undertaken and the vows exchanged, is unbreakably independent of the standing of either before God as regarding salvation and eternal life, until physical death separates. Note that in the Old Testament, the answer to the sin of adultery was immediate sentencing to death for the perpetrator(s), not divorce. That was the OT method of "loosing," eh?
In God's Heaven, of course, the only marriage is that of Christ and His Bride. I leave up to you now whether or not one's spiritual body will be fully furnished with genital equipment as in earthly life.
That is, the covenant sealed by the marital pledge of fidelity is validated from then on and according to the conditional boundary stated: (a) on the one hand, as long as they both shall live (be physically alive); and, on the other hand, until death do them part (one or both shall become physically dead).
I don't know that any marriage vow has a 'seal' connected with it...I have vowed things to God in the past that I have broken...Yet, it seems to me I am still saved...
I have concerns with the 'marriage vow' ('do you swear')...Is it a legitimate vow for atheists or non Christians, or are they free to ignore it??? While it appears to be common in the Old Testament for people to swear, give oaths or vows, the New Testament seems to warn us about that practice, maybe because of the severity of the consequence of it???
Jas 5:12 But above all things, my brethren, swear not, neither by heaven, neither by the earth, neither by any other oath: but let your yea be yea; and your nay, nay; lest ye fall into condemnation.
Can a Christian come under condemnation for breaking a vow to God???
Joh 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
Mat 5:33 Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths:
Mat 5:34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne:
Mat 5:35 Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King.
Mat 5:36 Neither shalt thou swear by thy head, because thou canst not make one hair white or black.
Mat 5:37 But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil.
Seems like this is telling us not to make a marriage vow but just say yes or no...
And what about Grace???
Yes. According to Christ’s exact word in Greek, there is a legitimate cause of divorce that ended a marriage.
You kept your word until the other ended the marriage. The marriage no longer exists. You are not bound, and free to marry or not.
“In God's Heaven, of course, the only marriage is that of Christ and His Bride. I leave up to you now whether or not one's spiritual body will be fully furnished with genital equipment as in earthly life.”
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