I’ve read it in context and there is NO WAY to suggest that “eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs” can be interpreted to refer to adultery!
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So, instead of suggesting that continued reading will covert me to your view, perhaps you have the wit to explain?
It was considered sinful to remarry unless you were divorced due to adultery.
Besides, the CC didn’t institute celibacy as rule for priests until hundreds of years later after Christ’s death. That tells me the rule of celibacy was man made and instituted rather than Biblical.
I’d argue that abuse is grounds for divorce.