Let's clear up something first....Mary is not the Blessed Mother.
She was a mother who was blessed. There is a difference.
The Roman Catholic wants a verse that says something along the lines of Joseph had sexual intercourse with Mary.
The context of the New Testament does not need that. Context is clear Joseph and Mary had a normal marriage with the intent of producing children.[If not, based on articles posted by you on how Roman Catholicism views marriage, their marriage would have been an invalid one.]
Matthew tells us Joseph kept her a virgin until Jesus was born.
After that they were free to consummate the marriage.
The RC appeal to the Protoevangelium of James for their false narrative of their children from Jospeh's prior marriage was rejected by the early church as it is not included in the NT canon.
That Rome did not include it in their canon at Trent is telling.
Can’t and wont answer the question, huh?