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To: raiderboy

“I have studied it for years and tested is from every angle. “church” was first used as an intentional mistranslation in the King James.”

Not sure how it differs so greatly from “congregation”, used by Tyndale 100 years earlier. And of course, there obviously was no church prior to the KJV translation....HUH?

“A common lie by the professional Christian is that Ekklesia” meant “gathering” or “assembly”.”

You mean, like where Ekklesia is translated assembly, as in Acts 19:39, “38 So if Demetrius and the craftsmen who are with him have a case against anyone, the courts are in session, and there are proconsuls. Let them bring charges against one another. 39 But if you want something else, it must be decided in a legal assembly.”

“2. in the Sept...the assembly of the Israelites, Judges 21:8; 1 Chronicles 29:1, etc., especially when gathered for sacred purposes, Deuteronomy 31:30 (Deuteronomy 32:1); Joshua 8:35 (Joshua 9:8), etc.

https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G1577&t=KJV


57 posted on 03/20/2018 6:21:19 PM PDT by Mr Rogers (Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools)
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To: Mr Rogers

Ekklesia is not “assembly”. Assembly is “Sanhedrin” . Ekklesia means “the called out” That is “believers” you cannot refute that. It is fact not subject to opinion.


59 posted on 03/20/2018 6:29:41 PM PDT by raiderboy ( "...if we have to close down our government, weÂ’re building that wall" DJT)
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