Daniel 3:25
I posted eight verses in which a modern Bible version clearly and unambiguously affirmed the divinity of Jesus Christ. I will give you the benefit of the doubt, and assume you are not foolish enough to think posting one verse from the Old Testament without explanation somehow magically nullifies the other eight.
So what is the purpose of this sudden change of subject? May I take it as tacit acceptance that when KJV-onlyists claim modern versions deny the deity of Christ, they have been spreading lies?
What if there are many more verses that "affirmed the divinity of Jesus Christ" but your Bible only gives you eight? Would you feel satisfied that you're receiving all the counsel of God?
Acts 20:27
For I have not shunned to declare unto you all the counsel of God.
Not me, I think I'll stay in the "foolish" column and get everything God has for me, thank you very much.
These people existed then, and so did their languages, according to you God has blessed numerous people today with His word in thier languages. And God's word teaches us He does not change.
Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
If God gives His word to people today in numerous languages, would he not have also given it to the people in those days in numerous languages? And if not, why not?