The apostle John seems to have understood the difference.
1Jn 3:4 Everyone who makes a practice of sinning also practices lawlessness; sin is lawlessness.
1Jn 3:5 You know that he appeared in order to take away sins, and in him there is no sin.
1Jn 3:6 No one who abides in him keeps on sinning; no one who keeps on sinning has either seen him or known him.
1Jn 3:7 Little children, let no one deceive you. Whoever practices righteousness is righteous, as he is righteous.
1Jn 3:8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil.
1Jn 3:9 No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God's seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God.
1Jn 3:10 By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother.
There are those who practice sinning. And there are those who practice righteousness. Those who practice righteousness fall into sin. Those who practice sinning are lawless.
I'm not sure how many times John has to state this. This isn't Revelation. But I understand your confusion as long as you believe in "free will". Under your soteriology you will never understand this passage along with many others. Under "free will" everyone is free to practice whatever they choose. This is heresy (not to mention totally confusing doctrine).