Posted on 06/01/2017 7:42:55 AM PDT by WhatNot
Ezekiel 18:21-23
21 But if the wicked will turn from all his sins that he hath committed, and keep all my statutes, and do that which is lawful and right, he shall surely live, he shall not die. 22 All his transgressions that he hath committed, they shall not be mentioned unto him: in his righteousness that he hath done he shall live. 23 Have I any pleasure at all that the wicked should die? saith the Lord GOD: and not that he should return from his ways, and live?
Our God is a God of miraculous mercy and divine grace, He gets no gratification when humans are thrown into hell. But He's also a holy judge and He gives everyone a fair trial in His perfect court of justice. And at His bar of impartiality, the verdict handed down will always go against the sinner. Obviously, the sentence should be eternal condemnation, nothing short of " Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels."
Lamentations 3:22
It is of the LORD’S mercies that we are not consumed, because his compassions fail not.
Romans 2:4
Or despisest thou the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leadeth thee to repentance?
To spurn God's compassion, to show disdain for the goodness of His mercy, is to wander down the path of tempting God. What's that? That's when you say things like, "Oh, I'll go ahead and sleep with this person tonight, because God will forgive me when I repent tomorrow." Tempting God is what the Jews did in the wilderness, they did it for so long that God finally lost patience with them.
1 Corinthians 10:9
Neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents.
Rather than tempting Christ, let's behave as we ought, entering daily into His presence, asking Him for transformation of our thoughts, our words and our deeds.
Thank you for posting this.
Your welcome, God Bless!
Ahhh...
Hate to say this, but re: King James, version, in the use of simplified language often changes the meaning of the word in a subtle way.
For example, the famous discourse of JC with Peter on the sea of Galilee. In Greek the use of “agape” and “philía”, which have distinct meanings in that discourse (agape twice, philia once) lost in the use of just the English word “love” used in KJB.
That is by no means the only place where the KJB loses/subtly alters meaning.
You're aware that the NASB, NIV, and RSV all do that same thing, right? Though I haven't checked every last one of the profusion of English versions that have been foisted off onto the unsuspecting public, I would guess that most of them do the same thing as well.
Correct, though some detailed version make note of the fact in the end notes that the difference in language/definition/simplification between the Greek and English, leaving the implications to the reader to decide.
It is a problem inherent in any translation, even today. But the value in knowing when the translation might have had to have used less than exact equivalent word lies in being able to differentiate between the general meaning, which is not changed that much, and the more specific or detailed meaning underlying the paragraph.
In the case of Peter and JC at the fish roast along the sea of Galilee , the difference in meaning is worth pondering.
Here's a little exercise you can try, just to see how Jesus used "Agape" vs "Phileo." this requires honesty on your part, but without using your Greek New Testament, or concordance, put an A for "Agape" (deep, intimate, selfless love) or a P for "Phileo"(casual, friendly love) before the statement you think is the love Jesus was talking about in each one.
_____ 1. Luke 11:42 "the love of God"
_____ 2. John 5:42 "the love of God"
_____ 3. Matt 10:37 "He that loveth father or mother"
_____ 4. Rev 3:9 "to know that I have loved"
_____ 5. Rev 3:19 "As many as I love"
_____ 6. Matt 23:6 "love the uppermost rooms"
_____ 7. John 12:25 "He that loveth his life"
_____ 8. Luke 11:43 "ye love the uppermost seats"
_____ 9. John 5:20 "the Father loveth the Son"
_____ 10. John 16:27 "the Father Himself loveth you, because ye have loved me"
If you're honest about it, you may be surprised at what you discover.
I think your first sentence is in error, word roots say otherwise.
“Philia”, goes back to at least the time of Aristotle, which is around 300 BC. He uses that as a kind of brotherly love, between men which does denotes a agreement on principle and purpose, without Eros (sexual love).
“Agape” is as old as written Greek. Parent like love. Unconditional love beyond rational explanation.
A clear distinction exists between the two. Peter is capable of philo love, not agape. He is asked two times if he can agape and he cannot assert it, responding he philios JC. He is asked the third time if he can philio Jesus, which is sufficient.
http://www.jesus.org/life-of-jesus/disciples/why-did-jesus-ask-three-times-if-peter-loved-him.html
Now you may well say that the original Greek account may have introduced a distinction not present in the actual Peter to JC discourse, but well.....I do not believe there is any scholarly evidence for that. John is supposed to have written his gospel in Greek, that was where is was when it was supposed to have been written.
By removing that distinction meaning is lost. Not all but some meaning that gives one a chance to think deeply on the point raised, which has value. While else would he have asked three times? Why is that point significant and why is it raised? John does not waste time in his gospel and is trying to make point missed in the other three gospels.
Ok thanks, have a great day!
A ... 1. Luke 11:42 the love of God
A ... 2. John 5:42 the love of God
P... 3. Matt 10:37 He that loveth father or mother
A ... 4. Rev 3:9 to know that I have loved
P ... 5. Rev 3:19 As many as I love
P ... 6. Matt 23:6 love the uppermost rooms
P ... 7. John 12:25 He that loveth his life
A ... 8. Luke 11:43 ye love the uppermost seats
P ... 9. John 5:20 the Father loveth the Son
P ... 10. John 16:27 the Father Himself loveth you, because ye have loved me
If God came down and stood on Mount Sinai people would still make a golden calf and bow down to it.
Joh 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
Joh 1:13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
He's the one that changes our hearts to His great name. Otherwise we would all be rightfully sent to hell. Let's us pray that He opens up eyes and ears of those around us and let us be faithful in doing His work.
Amen, that's a wonderful prayer to pray.
AMEN!!!
The issue you describe is not a problem with the KJV, it is a problem with English.
Had you translated the Greek into an English Bible, which English words would you have used instead of love?
I think the evidence is right in the verses themselves...
Jesus asks Peter, Peter do you love me??? Peter answers, Lord you know I like you...
And again, the Lord asks Peter, Peter, do you love me??? Again Peter says Lord, you know I like you...
So then the Lord the third time asks Peter, Peter do you like me??? And Peter says, Lord, you know it all...You know I like you...
But wait a minute...The Lord didn't ask Peter if Peter liked him a third time...Peter is telling us that the Lord used the same word three times in a row...
So what then, Peter thought the 2 different words meant the same thing???
Do you love me???
Do you love me???
Do you like me???
And Peter says, Lord I've told you 3 times that I like you...
So that's that...
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