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That’s right: if the first attempted marriage was itself sexually immoral or for some reason invalid -— let’s say, just for example, there was force or coercion involved —— then there can be an annulment because it wasn’t “right” to begin with.

But weren't the majority of marriages at that time arranged..."forced" if you will?

The only NT approved reason for divorce is adultery.

The Greek uses the verb μοιχεύω meaning "I commit adultery" in the passages in question (Matt 5:32; Matt 19:9; Luke 16:18; Mark 10:11)

Matthew 19:9 notes if anyone has been engaged in sexual immorality (πορνεία), defined as fornication, whoredom, idolatry, then that is allowed as a valid cause of divorce.

In all of these instances, infidelity within the marriage is the only valid cause of divorce.

There is no provision for a "forced" marriage or any of the other definitions of the RCC nor is there any provision for an annulment.

The New American Bible inserts the following into Matthew 19:9

I say to you,* whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery.”

Even the Douay-Rheims translates 19:9 as

And I say to you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and he that shall marry her that is put away, committeth adultery. Matt 19:9, Douay Rheims

No other translation renders the text as the NAB does.

The RCC is in extreme error in allowing this translation to enter the public. It is not a sound Biblical translation and cannot be defended.

If you'll look upthread, and ignore the bit where I almost start a flame war because of a misread statement, you'll see that we've talked quite a bit about that bit. It's the biggest sticking point; I can't accept Catholic doctrine about remarriage because of the definition of πορνεία. I believe that you type the truth, though I do hold one minor quibble. I wouldn't say 'approved' reason for divorce so much as 'tolerated' or 'acknowledged' or maybe, 'grudgingly admit exists because sin sucks.'

First, an arranged marriage is the same as a forced marriage. Even today among for instance the Haredim in ISrael who do arranged marriages,all the parties consent, and usually with joy and gratitude. They have a high rate of marriage success.

Second, please take into account that Jesus chose two different words, reflected in the two different words in the Greek, porneia and moicheia. Moicheia is incontestably adultery. Porneia is not. It’s reasonable to think that if He meant they were the same thing, He would have used the same word.

Third, consider the overall message Jesus is conveying here: it is that what GOD has joined together, no man is to put asunder. The core message here clearly goes way past the contemporary Hillel-Shammai debate. If Jesus had been merely agreeing with Shammai, his listeners would not have been flabbergasted, as they clearly were in the Gospel. accounts,