There’s no hint of division between Isaiah 65:17-19 and the rest of the chapter, so I think you’re just grasping at straws to say the prior verses do not precede the latter verses. That’s the only thing that could save your interpretation, but there is nothing in the text to suggest that, so why should we believe it unless we are already committed to your interpretation?
.
You see incongruities, yet say there is no hint of division?
What would be a hint to you?