The "rapture" will NOT occur BEFORE the following has transpired: Dont let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness[a] is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
NOTE here that "that day" is a reference to the Apostle's earlier teaching in I Thess. 4, where he talks about the revelation of Jesus Christ and the "gathering together" (rapture) of his saints, (which occurs AFTER THE RESURRECTION, by the way...)
Can Paul's teaching be any clearer? This was his stated intent in this passage - to clarify regarding the "rapture." He states that the "rapture" will not happen UNTIL the "rebellion" happens and the "man of lawlessness" is revealed...
Is this what you and your fellow pre-tribs teach? NO! You insist that "the Church must be taken out of the way" before the Antichrist is revealed and begins his evil program.
I repeat - you are in error, and are as "the blind leading the blind" into theological error.
I speak as one "born & bred" into pre-tribulationism and Dispensationalism. I have studied in pre-eminent Evangelical, Dispensational colleges, and have an earned BA, MA, and PhD in Theology. I spent many years in unquestioned acceptance of the pre-trib view - that is, until I decided to examine the evidence.
I have no interest in becoming involved in "endless disputes." "Let each be persuaded in his own mind." I will only challenge you to set aside your preconceived notions and ask God to show you the truth about this teaching.
There are three places where the noun apostasia appear int he New testament, the other two places, where it is used to accuse Paul of encouraging Jews to depart from the faith of Judaism have an antecedent accompanying the use. I leave you to decide what you want to believe.
The first 8 translations of the Bible from Greek translated apostasia (ἡ ἀποστασία) as 'departure' or 'the departing', as in The Departure. The Rheimes Bible changed to 'revolt', in 1582.
Have nice day.