And why did Joseph take her as his wife even when he knew that her babe was not his? So God could pull a fast one on the watching community, that her babe would not be identified as a bastard for lack of a husband, or that her babe was not of fornication with Joseph before the year-long pre-nuptial betrothal had passed according to the custom of insuring that she was a virgin at the formal consummation?
No. God does not play lying games.
Joseph married Mary in order that Jesus could be counted as David's legitimate royal heir, though Joseph refrained while that time of proof of her virginity right up to the babes birth passed, and all could witness thereto.
You'd better think out what all this means, particularly in view of the cultural context.
Because Jesus was to be born of a virgin. That's the important part. That's what scripture addresses.
To tease us with Biblical conundrums? Heh.
I've wondered myself. I know in some cases, humans have a problem of looking for answers where God doesn't give any.
You'd better think out what all this means, particularly in view of the cultural context.
It seems pretty clear. Born of a virgin. David's heir. Is there something else I'm missing?
I try to avoid the trap of the rationalizing mind, or at least understand that I'm dealing with hypotheticals rather than theology. I know what I need to know and I believe what scripture plainly teaches. Adding any human rationalization on top of scripture is fun and interesting, but not a basis for truth.
I always try to separate personal ideas from scriptural truths.
Speaking of personal ideas... Was Jesus Joseph's son genetically? There is no reason that the Holy Spirit couldn't have used Joseph's DNA as a template when Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit. Others have argued that Jesus' DNA was entirely from Mary and that means Jesus was an XX chromosome male. Lots of people might have lots of ideas, but it's not important other than a curiosity.