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The case of the nuns in 1960 in the Cong did not involve Pope Paul VI, nor a "ruling" made by any other pope. It was simply a clarification of the fact that the SIN of contraception is, precisely, the sin of choosing a disordered sex act, in this case, an intentionally sterilized act.

So is it OK for single Catholic women, who have no intention of sexual intercourse until sacramental marriage, and residing in Syria and Nigeria (and Juarez and Chicago) to take the Pill?

I'm asking again, do you have any documentation of said "ruling"?

Today is the first I've heard of it and Francis is known for making up stuff up out of thin air.

Finally, if it didn't involve Paul VI, why did Francis say it did?

Nobody OK'd "The Pill." This is an oral hormone which, when used for contraceptive purposes, is forbidden.

If used for non-contraceptive purposes (e.g. some unmarried, chaste, non-sexually active women use these pills legitimately to correct some kinds of hormonal imbalances) it is not a sin. If used with NO INTENTION of having sex, it is not a sin.

Moreover, all the hormonal "contraceptives" can react with female sexual physiology in three ways

by blocking ovulation (in this case, they would be sterilizants);
by causing changes in the cervical mucus which would block sperm (in this case, they would be true contraceptives);
by making the uterine lining unsuitable for implantation of the zygote /conceived child (in this case, it would be an abortifacient.)

This would all depend on the stage of the women's cycle, and her own hormonal levels.

For this reason, some informed prolife non-Catholic women (Protestant/Evangelical for instance) will not use The Pill for birth control.

Actually, I don't "get" the Pope Paul VI connection apparently made by Pope Francis. Pope John XXIII (regnal years 1958-1963) was pope during the 1960 Congo crisis. Pope Paul VI would have had nothing to do with it, as far as I know.

Pope Francis' statements are sometimes ambiguous to the point of incoherence.