**I have a question. Why does Jesus mentions in Mathew 28 in the great commision to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit?**
Why do you call Matthew 28 the ‘great commission’, as though it is greater than his other commissions? One of his other recorded commissions (Luke 24:47) says that “repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem”.
Let’s look at Matt. 28:19: “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:..”.
The greatest teacher of all gave the disciples that commandment, and they promptly went about baptizing in the name of JESUS. Now, first of all, note that he says ‘name’ in the singular, not ‘names’. ‘Son’ is a title. “thou shalt call his NAME Jesus”. Luke 1:21. Jesus Christ said that his name is not his own (John 5:43), And Heb. 1:4 says that he inheritted it.
Where did the Son get his name? The Father gave it to him. The Son is named after the Father.
What name does the Holy Ghost come in?....“The Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the FATHER will SEND in MY NAME...”. John 14:26
If you know a man, maybe even a relative that is named after his dad, and he asked you to do something in the name of him, and his father, wouldn’t you already know the NAME? That’s why Matt. 28:19 doesn’t have ‘Jesus’ spelled out. The disciples knew the NAME, and used it when ever they baptized souls.
Did not Jesus commanded His disciples to “make disciples of all the nations” ? That is the GREAT COMMISSION He gave before He Ascended back to Heaven?
While Luke’s reference to the preaching and calling for repentance “begining in Jerusalem”, in Mathew, it is also a call to form disciples via both teaching and baptizing in all the nations, for such, is called “the great commission.”