That never was part of scripture until the Catholic Church added it. The oracles of God were entrusted to the Jews and the Jews never considered it scripture.
If you hold the apocrypha to be scripture do you also burn fish hearts to ward off demons? Do you believe that have a daughter is a shame?
>>Please describe where the Church refuses to hear the words of Our Blessed Lord?<<
God said don't take things the pagans use to worship their gods and use them to worship Him. The Catholics do use things the pagan's use.
No - wrong. It’s in the Septuagent. Which means St Paul read it as his Bible. It means most of Jews had access to it, and in fact, the Hebrew Bible you are referring to wasn’t even in existence until much after Our Lord’s resurrection. Bible scholars have no reason to believe the Septuagent was alone in publishing the Apocrypha. So, the Apocrypha were excluded later after the time of Our Lord. Did they eliminate them as they foreshadowed Our Lord? Interesting those who fear those books, no? But make no mistake, they were there when Our Lord walked this earth.
In my view, one of the biggest problems in theology is the misunderstanding of this. St Jerome viewed Macabees in a slightly lesser form even before the 1800s - but even he never denied their influence - even if you don’t think they are in the Bible. All Protestant Bibles used to have the Apocrypha in the back and it is very recent that they were taken out, in the US around the Great Awakening.
So, 1) it is in the Bible; and 2) even if you want to argue it is not, clearly it is not a pagan source.
Second point asked and answered. See point two above. The evidence of liturgical foundations in Tradition and in the Bible have been stated clearly, OK.