That passage means just what it says, no man knows the day and the hour. “The times and the seasons,” yes, 2 Thess. 2:1, but not the day and the hour.
But the day and hour of what? is the question. The day and hour of the first parousia in a two parousia sequence? When, as per my posts on this thread, there are no such thing as two parousias defined for us anywhere in scripture? When there is no other parousia in Matt. 24 but the one in vss 29-31?
The day and hour, then, has to be referring to THAT parousia, the one in vss 29-31, the only one in the discourse.
Yes, I know the line of argument pretribs use, we are supposedly going to know right down to the day, and maybe even the hour, when the second parousia of the two parousia’s takes place. Jesus says otherwise.
Other than the clear statement of Jesus, I don’t think the post-trib parousia will be known down to the day and hour because it will not be as easy as pretribs think to nail down to the day and hour the precise starting point. The ending day and hour is only as precise as its beginning days and hour.
The whole pretrib argument of the day and hour is amiss, in my view, simply because the entire olivet discourse, from vss 3 onward, is about the singular parousia, the disciples question answered in vss 29-31. A supposed pretrib one is nowhere in view.
Not to mention the absence of a definitive statement anywhere in scripture setting forth two parousia’s, or two-stage, whatever you want to call it.
This old former pretribber sees ONE parousia everywhere. Try reading the Bible without the aid of the two parousia theory. You’ll be amazed.
No, that is NOT the question. Jesus was answering a question by the apostles.
Matthew 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming (parousia), and of the end of the world?
>>The day and hour of the first parousia in a two parousia sequence?<<
It's interesting that you switched from "coming" to the Greek word "parousia". Let's look at the meaning of that word.
Greek - παρουσίας - parousia - 3952 parousía (from parōn, "be present, arrive to enter into a situation") – properly, coming, especially the arrival of the owner who alone can deal with a situation. [http://biblehub.com/greek/3952.htm]
[3952 (parousía) is "used in the east as a technical expression for the royal visit of a king, or emperor. The word means literally 'the being beside,' thus, 'the personal presence' " (K. Wuest, 3, Bypaths, 33).]
>>When, as per my posts on this thread, there are no such thing as two parousias defined for us anywhere in scripture?<<
Of course there is. There is His parousia for the true believers, those who are the bride of Christ, and then there is the one at the end of the tribulation where He defeats the armies of Satan and sets up the 1000 year reign. Please show the scripture passage that shows there is only one parousia to come.
>>I don’t think the post-trib parousia will be known down to the day and hour because it will not be as easy as pretribs think to nail down to the day and hour the precise starting point.<<
Then please tell me the reason Daniel was given the specific number of days.
>>The whole pretrib argument of the day and hour is amiss, in my view, simply because the entire olivet discourse, from vss 3 onward, is about the singular parousia<<
Who says so? If you believe that the ekklesia of Christ will go through the tribulation then how do you dismiss the fact that we are told we will be kept from the wrath?
1 Thessalonians 1:10 And to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead, even Jesus, which delivered us from the wrath to come.
Revelation 3:10 Because thou hast kept the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.
And don't try the "He will keep us safe through it" line because in the verse above it says "which shall come upon all the world and them that dwell upon the earth.