"as it is written: 'None is righteous [Greek: "Dikaios"], no, not one'" (Romans 3:10, citing Psalm 14 and similar Scriptures)The Greek word is identical (only the case ending of the word changed a bit, as it's used in different parts of speech). That handles the "Greek words" part of your response; now, could you explain to me how "context" helps your case, here? Especially since I've seem people use the word "context" as a sort of "magical incantation" to mean "my opinion is right, and yours is wrong, and you'd know that if only you had eyes to see!" (which is a garden-variety "special pleading" fallacy).
compared to the following:
"Truly, I say to you, many prophets and righteous [Greek: "Dikaioi"] men longed to see what you see, and did not see it, and to hear what you hear, and did not hear it."
(Matthew 13:17)
"The angels will come out and separate the evil from the righteous [Greek: "Dikaion"]..."
(Matthew 13:49)
"Then the righteous [Greek: "Dikaioi"] will answer him, `Lord, when did we see thee hungry and feed thee [...]?"
(Matthew 25:37)
"Now there was a man named Joseph from the Jewish town of Arimathe'a. He was a member of the council, a good and righteous [Greek: "Dikaios"] man,"
(Luke 23:50)
And yet you included no differences in the actual meaning of the word. For example, the first definition is simply “just”. Context would indicate that in some cases the word simply means “just” or “impartial” where in others we can clearly understand it to mean “righteous” as in the righteousness of Christ. Demanding the same meaning in all cases is naive.