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Per your request:

Is James saying that faith without the law is nothing?

No.

Was Paul saying without the law of Moses or any law?

Whatever law one is under. For the Jews, that would be the Law of Moses. For the Gentiles, the law they assented to.

Was James talking about Mosaic law moral law?

No.

In Romans 4 was Paul talking about a different kind of work in verse 4 then he was in verse 5?

No, same work in both verses: perfect law-keeping.

Perhaps you or some other Catholic could give us your interpretation on all of that?

I'm not a Catholic.

Surely you would all want to be consistent correct?

I want only to be consistent with the Scriptures.