[imardmd1]

"But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, . . ." (Gal. 4:4 AV)

We have here a problem of translation, that also involves a problem of the physical construction of mankind, of whom The Savior must be, in every point, an exact copy.

So, how can The Pre-Existing Son of The God be dispatched by The Father God, yet be "made" of a "woman"? (Some would say, into a body made out of her flesh, hence the theological artifice of her flesh being previously free of sin, sinless; yet unbeknownst to medicine previous to the last century, lacking the Y-chromosome whose presence is absolutely necessary to impart maleness in the gestation of the fetus.)

There is an answer now completely available and obvious both theologically and medically, but ignored, denied, or rejected by those whose doctrine must have been wrong.

Pastor Bill, what is your approach on this?

[ifinnegan]

“There is an answer now completely available and obvious both theologically and medically, but ignored, denied, or rejected by those whose doctrine must have been wrong.”

What is the answer?

[pastorbillrandles]

I would say that because he was not concieved of the seed of man, He was without original sin.”A body thou hast prepared for me”- (Hebrews 10)
I want to know your answer