Either you have a contradiction in scripture or the word usage is being misunderstood. With all of your advanced degrees as you have given us would you be so kind as to clarify?
Either you have a contradiction in scripture or the word usage is being misunderstood.
From your post 3974: One only needs to study the Greek words to understand that the translation...
I did study the words in Greek and Hebrew for the OT and in the Greek for the NT. The word is "Diakaios". Word 1342 in both the Lexical aids and the Greek Concordance. In the NT is used top describe Joseph, (foster father of Jesus), Simeon, Elizabeth, her husband Zacharias, as well as John the Baptist.
In the OT LXX It is used 94 times including describing Noah In Gen 6:9
The same is true of the Hebrew Tanach.
So take your own advice and prove me wrong.
BTW my sources are: KJV interlinear Greek NT; Stone Edition Tanach Mesorah Publications limited 3rd impression of the first edition.), Jewish Study Bible (Oxford edition)
P.S. Just a thought here but maybe, just maybe, Paul was engaging in a little thing called "Hyperbole".