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To: boatbums; Springfield Reformer; Syncro; ealgeone
I did not murder anyone and I did sin, but I did so due to my nature and not because St. Paul quoted the exaggerated poetry of King David to the Roman converts. If you want to take that passage literally, take the whole of it literally.



The Penitent St Jerome

Filippino Lippi

c. 1485
Szépmûvészeti Múzeum, Budapest

St. Jerome, doctor of the Holy Church, thee who gave us the Latin Bible, pray for us.

In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, amen.

3,326 posted on 12/27/2014 8:36:58 PM PST by annalex (fear them not)
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To: annalex
i did not murder anyone and I did sin, but I did so due to my nature and not because St. Paul quoted the exaggerated poetry of King David to the Roman converts. If you want to take that passage literally, take the whole of it literally.

To be sure I understand....Paul is exaggerating the OT. A Pharisee of Pharisees who was advancing beyond his contemporaries and you say he's exaggerating the OT because it doesn't fit the distorted view the rcc has of Mary.

Amazing.

The catholic attempt to deny the Word never ceases to amaze.

And then you run off and ask Jerome to pray for you...even though we have no examples in the NT where we are told to pray to those who have departed this earth.

Why don't we ever see catholics asking Jesus for help?? It's either mary or someone other than Christ.

3,328 posted on 12/27/2014 8:57:28 PM PST by ealgeone
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To: annalex
I did not murder anyone and I did sin, but I did so due to my nature and not because St. Paul quoted the exaggerated poetry of King David to the Roman converts. If you want to take that passage literally, take the whole of it literally.

Well, THAT'S a relief! So, would you conclude that the Holy Spirit through Paul was including ALL mankind as under sin? When God says through the prophet in I Kings 8:46, for there is no one who does not sin, did He mean ALL or not? When God says through Moses in Genesis 8:21, even though every inclination of the human heart is evil from childhood, did He not mean all of us? When God says in Ecclesiastes 7:20, Indeed, there is no one on earth who is righteous, no one who does what is right and never sins., did He not mean everyone? I figure you already know about the many Scriptures that condemn all mankind as sinners in need of a Savior, so rather than brush it all off as exaggerated hyperbole, why not start to see our fallen nature as God sees it?

There is no exception for Mary in Scripture and I'm sure, if she was exempted from a sin nature, we would know about it from God's word. Why would He keep that a secret??? Are some people worse sinners than others? Oh, yeah, of course, but we are ALL sinners, we are ALL fallen, we are ALL at enmity with God, we are ALL capable of unthinkable evil given a set of circumstances. God knows that - He made us. So, please stop the nitpicking over words again. Why argue against what Scripture clearly says? Accept the truth for what it is. Without Christ, without the new birth, our hearts are desperately wicked - who can know it? That is what makes grace so awesome!

3,334 posted on 12/27/2014 10:32:02 PM PST by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to Him.)
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To: annalex; boatbums; Springfield Reformer; Syncro; ealgeone
>>St. Jerome, doctor of the Holy Church, thee who gave us the Latin Bible, pray for us.<<

That would be the Jerome who included multiple proven translation errors into the Latin Vulgate from which the Catholic Church to this day includes in their "approved translations".

3,359 posted on 12/28/2014 6:42:14 AM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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