[annalex]

Can a Catholic in the course of normal human events gain salvation while rejecting Catholic dogma?

First, do you imply "till his very death"? Because if not, he can repent and come back to the Church any time. In fact, we don't know if true repentance happens at death, for it may not be visible to anyone but Christ.

Then there is the question of full cooperation of the will. Does he know and understand the dogma? Does he seek to reconcile his views with the views of the Church? Is he grieving over his dissent?

Then, -- as you perhaps know, but I post for the general readership, -- not everything the Church teaches is dogma. Many aspects of the Church, often the most visible ones, are "disciplines", not dogmas. A good example is celibacy of the priests in the Roman Rite.

But finally, one who knowingly and willingly resist any dogma of the Church to the end cannot be saved, no.

The Last Judgment
Hans Memling

Merry Christmas!

[xone]

But finally, one who knowingly and willingly resist any dogma of the Church to the end cannot be saved, no.

Thanks of the explanation.

Merry Christmas!

To you as well.

[CynicalBear]

>>But finally, one who knowingly and willingly resist any dogma of the Church to the end cannot be saved, no.<<

So you and the Catholic Church think that The Dogma of the Assumption of Mary must be believed in order to be saved? Yet that was not made a dogma until 1950! So no one was saved until 1950 per the Catholic Church? The apostles didn't even teach what must be believed (according to the Catholic Church) to be saved? That's an astounding belief! To think that for hundreds of years no one was saved.

Even the Catholic Church says it was not believed for hundreds of years. It says:

"The doctrine of the Assumption was one that developed over time. It was not something new but rather the logical result of what was already known (Mary’s Immaculate Conception). Since corruption in the grave was the result of sin (Genesis 2:17) it was only logical to think that someone without sin would not suffer such a fate." [http://www.staycatholic.com/ecf_assumption.htm]

A "logical result"? "it was only logical"? Here's another statement.

"If therefore it might come to pass by the power of your grace, it has appeared right to us your servants that, as you, having overcome death, do reign in glory, so you should raise up the body of your Mother and take her with you, rejoicing, into heaven. Then said the Savior [Jesus]: "Be it done according to your will" (The Passing of the Virgin 16:2-17 [A.D. 300]).

"it has appeared right to us"? Not until 300AD and then only because "it has appeared right to us"? No teaching by the apostles. No mention of it untill 300AD! But then because "it has appeared right to us"? Now it's a dogma that people have to believe to be saved?

So tell me, who was saved prior to 1950? Or was it 300AD? When did people begin to be saved?

[metmom]

But finally, one who knowingly and willingly resist any dogma of the Church to the end cannot be saved, no.

Which is found no where in Scripture and the Catholic church saying it is so doesn't make it so.

Salvation is found only in the person of Jesus Christ, not in any organization.