If the Masoretic Text is a translated work (and it is) that appeared around the 4th century, (barring any earlier Masoretic Text that preceded it yet did not survive at the time Jerome’s Vulgate was completed), how could Jesus have quoted from it?
Where did you get the idea that the Masoretic Text was a translation? Give me an authority for this statement, please.
If the Masoretic Text is a translated work (and it is) that appeared around the 4th century, (barring any earlier Masoretic Text that preceded it yet did not survive at the time Jerome’s Vulgate was completed), how could Jesus have quoted from it?
Do you know what the Masoretic Text is?
He did ? When ?
Do you ANYTHING about how Jewish Scholars assembled and codified the Masoretic text
BTW, it's not a translation...
You really should stop asking asinine questions...