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To: paladinan
One last reply and then I really have to go. (1) First, I think the "hit and run" comment came from cuban leaf. (2) Greek words have a variety of possible meanings, and aionios can refer to absolute eternity, or not, depending on the principle of "the analogy of scripture," or comparing all of scripture to the passage being interpreted. When "death" and "destruction" and "perish" are used over and over again to describe the destiny of the lost, that would seem to call for an interpretation of aionios that allows for a termination. That does not necessitate that the word always has to mean that. When talking about the eternal life of the redeemed, there is no such obligation to require aionios to have that meaning. It is a flexible term. That's why we need to look at all scripture, not just pick out texts to suit our theology. Maybe you are guilty of the very crime you accuse me of.
190 posted on 06/04/2014 1:07:42 PM PDT by Genoa (Starve the beast.)
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To: Genoa

All right... and now that I look back, you’re quite right about the “cuban leaf” vs. the “hit and run” quip—sorry about that! Reply at your leisure... but let me summarize my point (for when you come back):

1) We both agree that “aionios” could possibly mean “forever” or “a long time/an age”. Looking at that specific word won’t tell us which meaning to use. But surely you’re aware of the fact that eternal hell has been a constant belief of the Christian Church for 2000 years? Look anywhere you like; with the exception of a very few outliers, every last Church father, every last Doctor of the Church, every last Saint and even every last Protestant founder (I’d say “reformer”, but that’s not an accurate description of what they did) are all unanimous about hell being eternal and inescapable. Doesn’t that mean anything to you... especially since the vast majority of the Protestants were/are “sola Scriptura” believers?

2) “Looking at all of Scripture” sounds fine and handsome, but it can often be a cover for “if only you’d read all the Scriptures, you’d agree with ME!” St. Matthew himself uses the very same word (”aionios/n”) in obviously parallel ways in the very same story, and in the very same verse! It’s not a stretch to suppose that he meant them to be taken in the very same way. Otherwise, you’re attributing a good deal of clumsiness to St. Matthew (and to the Holy Spirit Who allowed that text to be Sacred Scripture!).

3) “Death” need not imply obliteration; only atheists are obliged to believe that. I commented on this, already; “death” and “destruction” can refer to “absolute ruin”, as well as “complete erasure”; it can refer to a permanent state of unending misery... a permanent loss of life in union with God. Scripture *does* draw a distinction between “existence” and “life”; see my comments, earlier.


191 posted on 06/04/2014 1:24:18 PM PDT by paladinan (Rule #1: There is a God. Rule #2: It isn't you.)
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