Yes, right. If our Lord had intended infidelity he would have called it adultery, not fornication. If this were truly an exception then everything that he said before it would not make any sense; his response to the question would have simply be “only in the case of adultery.” Additionally, Luke has no such “exception”. The truth is that it is those who support divorce are the ones who are not following Scripture.
He DID call it adultery...What are you talking about???
And then you claimed the charge of fornication was an act before marriage...
Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
As we can clearly see, the context is a married wife...The context is a married wife who commits fornication (obviously with someone other than the husband) relieves the husband of causing the charge of adultery... I don't see how you think you can twist these simple, easy to understand verses into something that it clearly does not say...
Adultery is breaking the wedding bond...Fornication is whoring about...