"...written (translated) in Latin so that the common man would not be able to read it himself, but rather would need the Catholic church Hierarchy to interpret it for him."
Latin, English, or otherwise, how many of the "common man" do you think could read, period? England had a literacy rate of about 30% in the early 1600s IIRC (counting males only, for women it would have been even less.)
Seems like many many people did not trouble reading and understanding the Bible after it was translated into a language they understood. In fact that was the end of the “dark ages”.