How do you explain this scripture in the context of your opinion:
"Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles." (Isa 42:1 KJV)
>>>First: Joh 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.<<<
This is the context:
"All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out. For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day." (John 6:37-39 KJV)
I am fine that statement, as I am with any of God's Word; but the particular phraseology omits any possibility of a so-called pre-trib rapture, unless:
1. those that who will be raised up on the last day are unworthy to partake in the earlier rapture.
2. there will be more than one last day.
3. the last day is a very long day.
I personally believe Jesus was referring to the last day of the old covenant age around AD70.
Jesus later clarified that "all the Father gave him" were the disciples: his hand-picked servants while he was on earth:
"I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine. And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them. And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are. While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled." (John 17:9-12 KJV)
"Jesus answered, I have told you that I am he: if therefore ye seek me, let these go their way: That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou gavest me have I lost none." (John 18:8-9 KJV)
>>> Second: “But there are some of you who do not believe.” (For Jesus knew from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him.) And he said, “This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father.” (Joh 6:64-65)<<<
That can be taken in all sorts of different directions, for example, how would you interpret this series:
"No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day." (John 6:44 KJV)
"And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me." (John 12:32 KJV)
"And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:" (John 3:14 KJV)
"… he that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (John 14:9 KJV)
"I and my Father are one." (John 10:30 KJV)
So, do these passages say that Jesus, the Father, draws all men unto himself, and casts none out?
>>>Without the positive act of the Father, there are no believers, there can be no believers (save false ones), and we are all damned.<<<
That is exactly what Paul wrote:
"For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved. How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher? And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things!" (Rom 10:13-15 KJV)
Philip
“How do you explain this scripture in the context of your opinion:
“Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.” (Isa 42:1 KJV)”
What, exactly, do you want me to explain? You might as well quote a random verse at me next. Though, maybe, this is the random verse. You should probably explain how this verse supposedly ruins my alleged “opinion,” and then, when I know what you think it means, I can reply to it.
“I am fine that statement, as I am with any of God’s Word; but the particular phraseology omits any possibility of a so-called pre-trib rapture, unless:”
What the heck are you talking about? When did I mention a Pre-trib rapture? And how do you get that out of John 6?
I quoted that verse to show that:
ALL that the Father gives to the Son, do come to the Son.
And I used the second verse to show, though I didn’t bother to explain it, that to “come” is the same as “believing,” since those who do not believe do not come to the Son, since it was not given to them to believe.
“Jesus later clarified that “all the Father gave him” were the disciples: his hand-picked servants while he was on earth:”
If that’s the case, then all the people written to by the Apostles were already converted by Christ, and were His desciples presently, prior to His crucifixion:
1Pe 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
1Pe 1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.
And Christ here would be either lying, or delusional:
Joh_11:52 And not for that nation only, but that also he should gather together in one the children of God that were scattered abroad.
Joh_10:16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.
“That can be taken in all sorts of different directions, for example, how would you interpret this series:”
If you can actually take it in different directions, why do you immediately fail to do so? Give your interpretation of the verse first, and then I’ll engage you on the rest.