Not arguing the point you make because i don,t know, just pointing it out.
The translation of the verse depends upon your belief system. For example the King James, which you quoted:
(KJV) And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are,, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.
If you look in the KJV you'll see "are" is in italics. This is to distinguish that the word is added by translators to make it more clear. It's not in the greek. And the next sentence doesn't give a "he" or "they" in who shall be tormented.
The Modern King James Version:
(MKJV) And the Devil who deceived them was cast into the Lake of Fire and Brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet were . And he will be tormented day and night forever and ever.
"Were" is added and the next sentence reflects that only the devil is in the lake of fire at this point..."he will be tormented".
The New King James:
(NKJV) The devil, who deceived them, was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone where the beast and the false prophet are. And they will be tormented day and night forever and ever.
Again "are" is added and this time "they" is used to reflect the belief of the translator.
So it's own these verse prove nothing linguistically, they only prove the translator bias.
(KJV) And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.
And also was (he) added to the MKJV since it is not there in the KJV