Actually, there are 3.5 years left unfulfilled, as you say. Jesus' ministry was 3.5 years, and he was "cut off", which resulted in the end to sacrifice.
I have been told several times that I did not understand prophecy, and needed to read so-and-so's book, to explain it to me. When I pointed out the plain scriptures in the NT regarding the gathering together and the resurrection, I was told that they don't mean what they say, rather, they have to be "understood" in light of dispensational teaching from Darby, Scofield, et al.
I will never convince you of the validity of scripture, so all I can can do is urge you too read all the NT passages relating to the resurrection, and realize how EVRY ONE has to be explained in a way that contradicts the plain reading of the text. To wit:
John 6:39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
I have been told that Jesus did not mean the LAST day of human history, but rather, the last day of the church on earth. Jesus mentions it 5 times without this "clarification".
2 Thess 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
After the warning to not be deceived, we are told that the gathering will not occur until these 2 preceeding events. However, I have been told repeatedly that the rapture is "imminent".
1 Cor 15:52 In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.
I have been corrected that this is not the last trum of the 7 in Revelation, but rather the last sound of the trumpet call for the rapture. Those in the know refer to Matthes 24:31. But this is even more problematic when looking at Matt 24:29, below.
Matt 24:29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days
I have been corrected that this is all written to the Jews, as evidenced by the term "elect" in verse 31. The word "eklektos" is used 16 times in the NT. 1 time for Jesus, 1 time for the Angels, and 7 times that clearly refers to the Church. The remaining 7 times are non-descript, and could refer to the Church or to Israel. However, there are NO clear references to Israel as Elect in the NT.
In any case, the pre-trib position must reserve these and many other NT scriptures, and re-explain them in light of the pre-trib position, a teaching for which there is NOT A SINGLE SCRIPTURE reference that clearly explains the doctrine. Please correct me on this mis-statement. Reference and show the verse in our correction, don't just declare I am wrong and ignorant of prophecy.
Um, No. There are seven years left unfulfilled as I said. When Jesus was “cut off” there were still seven years left of he 490 year prophecy.
Daniel 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. 27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
After Jesus was crucified Satan’s people destroyed the city of Jerusalem. Then Satan will “confirm a covenant” for one week. That week has not yet happened.
>> I have been told several times that I did not understand prophecy, and needed to read so-and-so's book, to explain it to me.<<
Yeah so? Muslims tell us to read something other than scripture to “explain” also. You seem to use that “people have told me” meme rather often. It seems to me you have simply chosen to listen to a different “people” to come to the conclusion you have because it certainly doesn’t line up with what scripture teaches.
>> I will never convince you of the validity of scripture<<
Who do you think you are trying to snowball here? Scripture is all that I use as they are the ONLY valid source. Please don’t use that Catholic and Liberal tactic on me.
>> I have been told that Jesus did not mean the LAST day of human history, but rather, the last day of the church on earth. Jesus mentions it 5 times without this "clarification".<<
There you go with that “I have been told” stuff again. You used John 6:39 as your “example” to try to insinuate that somehow that relates to the “church”. Where did you get that? What had Jesus been “given”? What was His birth right? Wasn’t it to be “King of the Jews”? When has He been the earthly “King of the Jews”? Jesus hasn’t yet been “given” all that the Father gave Him. It will be raised up “again in the last day”. That’s when the restored nation of Israel will repent and accept Him as their messiah and He will then reign as “King of the Jews” for 1000 years. You trying to insert into that verse that it means the “church” doesn’t make it so. Show me from scripture where that means the “church” and the “church” only is what Jesus was “given” if that’s what you believe.
>>After the warning to not be deceived, we are told that the gathering will not occur until these 2 preceeding events. However, I have been told repeatedly that the rapture is "imminent".
ARGGGH! There’s that “I have been told” again. What “gathering” will not occur until “these 2 preceding events? You quote 2 Thess 2:3. Are you trying to tell me that’s the gathering of the church? By what proof text?
2 Thessalonians 2:3 is talking about end of the tribulation. That is evident by the phrase “that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition”. That’s the antichrist.
2 Thessalonians 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
The antichrist has not been revealed to this point. Neither has he set himself up in the temple. Then we have to determine WHAT day will not come. The previous chapter tells us that. It starts in verse 6 of chapter 1. “Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you;”. That verse begins talking about what is going to happen to those who “trouble you”. It goes on to say how God will take vengeance on the unbelievers.
So far the passages you used have no relationship to what is going to happen to the “church”. Now we need to find out what has to happen in order for the antichrist to be “revealed” don’t we? If we read on in 2 Thessalonians 2 we find out.
2 Thessalonians 2:7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way. 8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
So now you have to answer the question; “what is “taken out of the way” before “that Wicked” to be revealed?