And if "yes" then why ? To what purpose ? Would the Ru'ach HaKodesh permit the "mistranslation" ??
shalom b'SHEM Yah'shua HaMashiach
That's a question that goes all the way back to Genesis. That is, not just why would Our Lord the Holy Spirit permit mistranslations, but why would he permit pride, anger, lust, envy, gluttony, avarice, sloth --- why would He permit sin error, or ignorance at all?
The necessary theodicy includes some consideration of man's free will.