Guess I am not understanding. So if the legal state intoxication level decides one being ‘biblically drunk’ how do you know if you are biblically drunk if you are in a state that doesn’t have any laws deciding perimeters on intoxication? How did they know before there were such laws anywhere? What happens when you cross the border into a state where the laws are for differing levels of intoxication? Could one be biblically drunk and then become not biblically drunk or vice versa when crossing a border where the laws are different?
Freegards
My experience as a counselor to problem drinkers/alcoholics is that they reject any kind of restriction whatsoever.
For a Christian, living in our era, our BAC laws provide a starting point on determining the definition of drunkenness BECAUSE they have used research data that has been based on levels of BAC that cause incapacitation.
That would be pretty much universal once it’s gone to that level.
My experience as a counselor is that the BAC is right on the money in determining when the drinker has crossed a line.