Your comment once again.>>>>Paul actually only uses the term "my gospel" thrice, (Rm. 2:16; 16:25; 2Tim. 2:8) but perhaps that counts as "several," yet he also thrice refers to it as "our gospel," (2Cor. 4:3; 1Ths. 1:5; 2Ths. 2:14)<<
According to Strong, Thayer, NASEC, and Englishman’s the Greek words used in ALL those texts mean the same thing. http://biblesuite.com/greek/1473.htm
Not they do not, for as shown , as the word used is not G1473, but G3450 (my) and G2257 (our), respectively. And what you are doing is using the root (G1473) for G2257 to define what a word precisely means, which is invalid, and would enable ignoring the distinctions made hundreds of times btwn the singular and plural.
This is simply untenable, and appears to be an example of result of the "the root fallacy," in which a person assumes that the meaning of a word must be bound to the meaning of its etymological root. More here .
I did nothing other than show what Strong, Thayer, NASEC, and Englishman’s have on that site.
>>This is simply untenable, and appears to be an example of result of the "the root fallacy," in which a person assumes that the meaning of a word<<
I am not the “a person”. If you have disagreement then you need to take that up with either Strong, Thayer, NASEC, and Englishman or the site that posts their work as I simply showed what they showed as the meaning of the words. They are the experts, not I.