CCC 2386: It can happen that one of the spouses is the innocent victim of a divorce decreed by civil law; this spouse therefore has not contravened the moral law. There is a considerable difference between a spouse who has sincerely tried to be faithful to the sacrament of marriage and is unjustly abandoned, and one who through his own grave fault destroys a canonically valid marriage.
Therefore, an "innocent spouse in a marital break-up has the same possibility to receive Communion as other Catholics, with the usual conditions (being free from mortal sin in other areas of life, going to Confession if not, Eucharistic fast and so on)."
I am glad you cited CCC 2386 because it does suggest the way this is seen by the SPXX and Sedevacantist on this site is that the Catholic Church is changing its teaching on marriage. Not true, and of course there are the usual FR Protestant Brigades who will chime in the same way.
The Catholic CHurch does not forbid Eastern Orthodox Christians from taking Holy Communion in the Catholic CHurch. The views that CCC 2386 suggest and what Pope Francis is talking about sounds consistent with what the Eastern ORthodox Church allows so are we talking about a change in moral theology, no, are we talking about a change in Church canons [rules standards] with respect to who can take Holy Communion, yes, but it is not a change in Doctrine. Unfortunately, there are too many individuals who think they are top notch theologians who will not understand what CCC 2386 is clearly stating and try to spin any change in church policy towards reception of Holy Communion to fit there own preconceived agendas.
“CCC 2386: It can happen that one of the spouses is the innocent victim of a divorce decreed by civil law; this spouse therefore has not contravened the moral law. There is a considerable difference between a spouse who has sincerely tried to be faithful to the sacrament of marriage and is unjustly abandoned, and one who through his own grave fault destroys a canonically valid marriage.”
So, does this mean that if Spouse A tires of Spouse B (who wanted to stay married to A) and divorces him/her, then Spouse B is free to marry and still receive communion (i.e. is not in a state of grave sin) since B did nothing to initiate the divorce?