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To: FatherofFive
No, it is faith ALONE.

Roman’s 3:21-31

21 But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. 22 This righteousness is given through faith in[h] Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement,[i] through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26 he did it to demonstrate his righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.

27 Where, then, is boasting? It is excluded. Because of what law? The law that requires works? No, because of the law that requires faith. 28 For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from the works of the law. 29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too, 30 since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through that same faith. 31 Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.

WORKS ARE IMPOSSIBLE TO SAVE, they are an outward sign of an inward change that God has done! God has “circumcised the heart”.

-JS

62 posted on 10/13/2013 2:43:09 PM PDT by JSDude1 (Is John Boehner the Neville Chamberlain of American Politics?)
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To: JSDude1; FatherofFive

JSDude1:

And that passage (Romans 3:21-31) is clearly in reference to the works of the Mosaic Law, not to the works of the “new” Law (the universal form of the Law, which Christ brought to us). Just look at verse 29:

“Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also..”


87 posted on 10/13/2013 6:55:21 PM PDT by matthewrobertolson
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