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To: Mrs. Don-o; metmom
All those excellent Scriptures, which I appreciate, do not prove that none are blessed above others.

Jumping into the fray here, but while i concur some are blessed more than others (such as we have "gifts differing according to the grace that is given to us," [Romans 12:6] and unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required, [Luke 12:48], yet the word use to describe Mary as blessed above all women does not she is the most blessed due to her being more virtuous.

"Charitoo" as in Lk. 1:28, is never used for "full" elsewhere, and is wrongly rendered "full of grace" in the DRB rather than highly favored (but Rome's current official New American Bible has the latter), and which is also used of all believers in Eph. 1:6. In contrast, the only one said to be full of grace is the Lord Jesus, "full of grace and truth," using "plērēs," which denotes "full" 17 other places in the NT.

218 posted on 10/13/2013 11:03:51 AM PDT by daniel1212 (Come to the Lord Jesus as a contrite damned+destitute sinner, trust Him to save you, then live 4 Him)
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To: daniel1212; Mrs. Don-o; metmom; smvoice
I can add to that just a little perhaps.

Catholics say their “hail Mary” prayers and say that she is “full of grace” but let’s see what the Holy Spirit really had written as a record.

Luke 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured ( kecharitōmenē, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.

Kecharitōmenē
Short Definition: I favor, bestow freely on
Definition: I favor, bestow freely on.

John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full (font color=red> plērēs) of grace (font color=red> charitos) and truth.

plérés
Definition: full, abounding in, complete, completely occupied with.

charitos
Short Definition: grace, favor, kindness

Jesus was “full of grace” as seen in John 1:14. Mary is never referred in scripture as being “full of grace”. The RCC has taken an attribute of Jesus and given it to Mary.

Catholics also state that because Mary is “full of grace” she must be sinless. Well let’s look at more evidence.

Acts 6:8 And Stephen, full (plérés) of grace ( charitos) and power, was performing great wonders and signs among the people.

Wow! Look at that. Stephen was “full of grace” just like Jesus! Was Stephen sinless? NO, so how can Mary, who was not even said to be “full of grace” be sinless when they don’t claim Stephen was? Why would Catholics follow an organization that lies to them?

231 posted on 10/13/2013 12:59:10 PM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ)
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