I have a question to ask you: when a Pope or member of Magisterium speaks about something as “infallible”, does that mean they are similar to OT prophets, where what they received from God was infallible?
No. Nothing has ever been “infallibly” defined without determining that it has been believed “always and everywhere” by the Church. That does not mean ABSOLUTELY “always and everywhere,” or there would be no need for a definition. An example would be the Resurrection. That HAS been believed absolutely “always and everywhere.
There have been two infallible definitions of dogma regarding Mary, her Immaculate Conception, and her Assumption. This was done only after ascertaining that there was evidence that both dogmas had been believed from apostolic times in practically all places.