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To: RobbyS

My dictionary gives its date as 1830-1840.

After the old regime went out, after the French Revolution, After the Empire, and during the bourbon restoration. Of course the English would have been less affected by French politics.

I rather like bourgeois republican government, certainly compared to pretended Christian Monarcy. That latter would include Henry 8th which all Catholics know was pure evil.


232 posted on 10/10/2013 6:46:47 AM PDT by donmeaker (The lessons of Weimar are soon to be relearned.)
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To: donmeaker

What happened in France from 1789-1815 was not “ politics” but a sea change more akin to what happened in The Roman world is the last century before Christ. Long before the Revolution, the aristocracy has lost faith in its own standards and was casting about for new ones. We forget that Louis XVI was a “reforming” monarch, not unlike the Bourbons in Spain or Joseph in Austria. If he was confused and not very bright, he was a good man , pulled this way and that by the members of his court, who were from a nobilty that has not outlet for its frustrations. If Louis had not the opportunity to call an Estate-general at the start of his reign, how different things might have been. But of course, everyone was a believer in absolute monarchy. Yet paradoxically, England was much admired. Howe different the history of France would have been if the American rebellion had collapsed at the end of 1776, as it almost did, or if in the fall of 1777, Howe had moved enough troops up to help Burgoyne’s advance from Canada instead of moving to occupy Philadelphia.


236 posted on 10/10/2013 2:39:02 PM PDT by RobbyS (quotes)
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