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To: Just mythoughts; Salvation; mlizzy
Born again of the Spirit. When I say born again, I refer to spiritual rebirth and being indwelt by the Holy Spirit. As to your saints part, once we are born again of the Spirit we are saints in God's eyes. http://katachriston.wordpress.com/2011/08/26/the-born-again-narrative-in-john-3-an-aramaic-impossibility-well-no/ Bart Ehrman has published an argument concluding the conversation between Jesus and Nicodemus in Jn 3 “could not have happened, at least not as it is described in the Gospel of John” (Bart Ehrman, Jesus Interrupted, p. 155). We present Ehrman’s argument here with brief critique. As a preview, our main gripe with Ehrman’s presentation (more fully explained below) is that whereas Ehrman supposes an original Aramaic conversation between Jesus and Nicodemus would necessarily have had Jesus using an Aramaic word which can only mean “from above,” but not “second time,” it turns out the ancient Aramaic versions we do actually have, such as the Syriac Peshitta, have “again” (all of the major English translations of the Peshitta render the Aramaic men derish in Jn 3:3 either as “again,” or “anew”).[1] Further, if the Aramaic for “again” which we do find in the ancient Aramaic version could have been used in an original Aramaic conversation between Jesus and Nicodemus (and there is no good reason to think it could not have been) then both the original conversation in Aramaic and the translation of it into Greek make perfectly good sense, and Ehrman’s argument has come to ruin. First, Ehrman’s argument: “In the Gospel or John chapter 3, Jesus has a famous conversation with Nicodemus in which says, “You must be born again.” The Greek word translated “again” actually has two meanings: it can mean not “a second time” but also “from above.” Whenever it is used elsewhere in John, it means “from above” (Jn 19:11, 23). That is what Jesus appears to mean in John 3 when he speaks with Nicodemus: a person must be born from above in order to have eternal life in heaven above. Nicodemus misunderstands, though, and thinks Jesus intends the other meaning of the word, that he has to be born a second time. “How can I crawl back into my mother’s womb, he asks, out of some frustration. Jesus corrects him: he is not talking about a second physical birth, but a heavenly birth, from above. This conversation with Nicodemus is predicated on the circumstance that a certain Greek word has two meanings (a double entendre). Absent the double entendre, the conversation makes little sense. The problem is this: Jesus and this Jewish leader in Jerusalem would not have been speaking Greek, but Aramaic. But the Aramaic word for “from above” does not also mean “second time.” This is a double entendre that works only in Greek. So it looks as though this conversation could not have happened—at least not as it is described in the Gospel of John” (Bart Ehrman, Jesus Interrupted, p. 155). Interesting argument, but it is complete nonsense! (note that Ehrman does not actually specify what exact Aramaic word or phrase he has in mind; we will proceed on the assumption that the Aramaic phrase found in the Syriac Peshitta will serve nicely. Here is an English translation[1] of the dialog as it occurs in the original Aramaic of the Peshitta: John 3:3 – “Jesus answered and said to him, Truly, truly, I say to you, If a man is not born AGAIN he cannot see the kingdom of God.” John 3:4 “Nicodemus said to him, How can an old man be born again? Can he enter again a second time into his mother’s womb, and be born?” Verse 4 follows quite nicely from verse 4 in the Peshitta. Nicodemus would have understood “again” in vs. 3 to mean… well.. “again“(!), and his reply in vs. 4 would have made perfectly good sense -no “double entendre” required (nor was it ever supposed by any of the numerous early ancient translations of the Greek NT into other languages (versions), all of which simply render Jn 3:3 with equivalents of “again.” In the ancient world it seems the natural reading “again” was obvious and unanimous. No direct ancient evidence for anything else exists in Aramaic, Coptic, Ethiopic, Latin, or any other language into which the Greek text was translated). Here also is an interlinear translation from peshitta.org with Jn 3:3 in red; the footnote to their English rendering “again” has Lit. ‘from the start’ (‘over again’). Finally, let us consider the form of the text in the Greek NT. How would a translator have rendered an Aramaic conversation if it occurred as it is found in the Aramaic Peshitta into Greek? Well… he might have translated the Aramaic for “AGAIN” with the Greek word for “AGAIN” – ανωθεν/anothen- and that is precisely what we do find in the Greek text of John 3:3. http://www.letusreason.org/Biblexp45.htm This term “Saint” was first used in the New Testament after the resurrection (Mt.27:52), but after the book of Acts the Church members are often identified as saints. When Annanias said Paul did many evil things to the Saints in Jerusalem Acts 9:13 (as when he put the saint’s in prison, and put many to death Acts 26:10). The word Saint shows ones new position in Christ as they are set aside for his service, the word disciple shows one is a learner. Phil. 4:21-22: “Greet every saint in Christ Jesus. The brethren who are with me greet you. All the saints greet you, Paul’s meaning is clear, those who worked with him and those he knew were saints. They are consecrated, holy and godly. 1 Cor 1:2: “To the church of God which is at Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all who in every place call on the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours: Paul named the believers saints in nearly every church 2 Cor 1:1: with all the saints who are in all Achaia: Rom 1:7: To all who are in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Phil 1:1: To all the saints in Christ Jesus who are in Philippi, Col 1:2: To the saints and faithful brethren in Christ who are in Colosse: Eph 1:1: To the saints who are in Ephesus, and faithful in Christ Jesus: Eph. 5:3: “But sexual immorality, and all uncleanness, or covetousness, let it not even be mentioned among you, as becomes saints” A holy character is to be exhibited by those who have been translated into the kingdom of the son. A Saint in the New Testament is one who is saved by the gospel and in service to God. Jude 1:3 the faith-which was once for all delivered to the saints.” All who are in the faith are Saints. The New Testament does not support the idea of a special class of “saints.” Although some believers are more “holy” than others, because of their maturity -in their position before God all believers are the same “sanctified,” because they are “in Christ.” The Christian’s position is from justification, while we are all at different points of sanctification. We are sanctified by reading the word showing we are his disciples. We are conformed daily by reading and practicing his word.
215 posted on 09/15/2013 11:38:41 PM PDT by jodyel
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To: jodyel; Just mythoughts; Salvation; mlizzy; All

Whoa, apologies for the run on and on of the text!


221 posted on 09/15/2013 11:57:14 PM PDT by jodyel
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To: jodyel
.......Bart Ehrman has published an argument concluding the conversation between Jesus and Nicodemus in Jn 3 “could not have happened, at least not as it is described in the Gospel of John”.......

It seems in this need to argue against what is actually Written, Bart ignores the question Christ posed to Nicodemus in John 3:10 ...."Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things? This lesson was not a new revelation and it was not given to have a slogan to be stated and/or ask 'are you born again'. Because IF the question is to one in a flesh body the answer is obvious and apparent ... that flesh body did get born from above.

So there was not a language barrier in what was Written down, there is a ignoring of what is actually being instructed. Nicodemus a Pharisee came 'secretly' to Christ to acknowledge WHO Christ was. And Christ picked the subject matter He intended to teach Nicodemus as well as future readers of the encounter.

John 3:13 Written as summation of the lesson states in a quite concise manner what Christ said ..."And no man ascended up to heaven, but He That came down from heaven, even the Son of man Which is in heaven.

The first requirement to 'see' the kingdom of heaven is to come through this flesh journey which those fallen angels of Genesis 6 and Jude (as well as in Revelation) describes will not survive to see or enter the kingdom of heaven.

We have Christ saying what is required to 'see' and then 'enter into the kingdom of God' regardless of what Bart claims.

What does that word 'saint' literally mean? From the Hebrew and the Greek? Only God keeps the perfect record from the beginning to put any of His children in the 'saint' category. Paul says in Ephesians 1:4 They were chosen/elected before the foundation of the world or before the overthrow - casting down of the devil. They stood against the serpent when he rebelled, as described in Genesis 1:2.

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. When Christ returned to heaven the Holy Spirit was given to any who would through GOD/WORD be comforted, led, instructed. The Holy Spirit would not argue against God and/or Christ's instructions. Such as Bart did.

255 posted on 09/16/2013 7:30:19 AM PDT by Just mythoughts (Jesus said Luke 17:32 Remember Lot's wife.)
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