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To: Greetings_Puny_Humans
“My sheep hear my voice,” saith Christ, “and I know them, and they follow me: And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand”(Joh 10:27-28). On the other hand, to the reprobate, Christ declares, “I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity” (Mat 7:23).

The word for “know” or “knew” is the Greek word ginosko which means “to learn to know” or “come to know.” Jesus can’t learn to know us until we humble ourselves and accept Him as Lord. These verses don’t contradict the fact that God/Jesus FOREKNEW of everyone and has provided for everyone a chance to accept Jesus.

“All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out” (John 6:37). So we see that none of the elect are ever lost or fail to come, since all those who are given by the Father do come to the Son infallibly.

The key to this verse is knowing that the Greek words for “come” (as in “shall come to me”) and “cometh” (as in “him that commeth to me”) are different. The word for “shall come” is heko which essentially just means to have come or arrived. The word for “him that cometh” is erchomai which means a number of things. One is “to come” and another is “to follow”. So this verse very simply means that the Father brings people to Jesus, but those who choose to “follow” will in no wise be cast out.

God does not merely ask and persuade, but actively “put[s] [His] law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be [His] people,” and again, God says, “I will... cause you to walk in my statutes” (Jer 31:33, Ezekiel 36:27, Hebrews 8:10, 10:16).

This is AFTER a person has made a commitment for Jesus, not before.

Christ constantly tells them that they do not believe, because it was not given to them to believe. To the Pharisees He says, “ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep,” and then He adds, “as I said unto you” (John 10:26). Earlier He had told them that the sheep hear His voice, and He knows them. They are not here removed from Sheephood because they refused to believe, but because they were never sheep at all.

They aren’t sheep because they didn’t believe at that point. Nobody is Jesus’s sheep until they believe. The verse doesn’t prove what you think it does.

To other unbelievers He says:“But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him. And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.” (Joh 6:64-65)

All this says is that it is impossible to come to Jesus without the Father, but it doesn’t say that anyone is prevented from coming to Jesus by the Father. This just reinforces that we can’t come to Jesus by our own effort or work, which I agree with.

If all receive it from the Father to believe in the Son, then it should have been said “My Father gave it to you to believe, but you refused His fair offer.” Or, at best, “I foreknew you would not receive what my Father gave you.” But instead Christ tells them, as an explanation for their unbelief, “no man can come unto me, except it were given... [by] my Father.” Plainly Christ here declares that it is given to some to believe, but not all.

No, it doesn’t “plainly” state what you read into it. Christ does declare that a person has to be “given by the Father” or led by the Spirit of God to come to Christ, but it most certainly doesn’t say that not all people are led to Christ or given a chance to believe. You just have an idea that you want to impose on Scripture, so you read it that way. Now that could also be said about me, so what the observer needs to do is search Scripture themselves, and pray about it and not take my word or your word or anyones word as the end all. The only WORD that is the end all is Scripture, which is God’s Word.

And in still another place, Christ begins to pray for some, but not for all, saying “I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine”(John 17:9). Now Christ could not have prayed only for those given to Him if the whole world was given to Him. His prayer should have been for the whole world, rather than just for those given to Him out of the world.

That verse still doesn’t say anything which would contradict that all people have a chance at salvation. All it illustrates is Christ prayed for different things at different times. Sometimes I just pray for my family and not anyone else, but that doesn’t mean that I couldn’t adopt someone else in the world into my family. Same with Jesus. Also this verse occurs when Jesus is praying before going to the cross. His prayer is at this time is specifically about the apostles. Surely you aren’t suggesting that only the apostles were given to Jesus. That’s a mighty small number in Heaven then and it would exclude you and me.

And in the very next verse of Romans that you quoted, it declares, (proving the falsehood of Salvation’s OP which declares an “incomplete” and a “complete” predestination,) that all predestination is complete. “Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified” (Rom 8:30). I’m sure there are many people who are in hell, who had either been removed from Judea in ancient times by thousands of miles, or who today live in various parts of the world who had never so much as even heard of any Gospel, who will be surprised to hear that they were called, justified and glorified.

Romans 8:30 is expanding on Romans 8:29. Verse 29 says that all whom God foreknew (everyone) has a chance at a destiny with God. Verse 30 is expanding on the last part of 29 which talks about those who chose God or the “first born amoung the brethern.” So if you accept Christ THEN you are justified, and glorified.

In the very next chapter of Romans, Paul distinguishes even further from the “children of the flesh,” and the “children of promise.” Such a distinction in itself proves that not all are promised. He also removes any sense of the idea that salvation is based on conditions, rather than on the gratuitous choice of God to save one man, and not another. “That is, They which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed... but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac; (For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;) It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.” (Rom 9:8-13)

You are really confusing things here. Paul was talking about the difference between Jews and Gentiles. Before Jesus, the Jews had a unique relationship with God, but after Jesus, ALL have the same opportunity for a relationship with God. It is true that salvation isn’t because of your race but because of your choice to believe in Christ through faith. NONE of Romans 9 proves that only some are saved and others are born with no hope of salvation.

Now Paul uses this to explain the nature of God’s election, that it is not based on the righteousness of the elect, but on the purely free mercy of God for one child over another. As he says himself, “not of works, but of Him that calleth,” proving that salvation belongs utterly to God’s selective call.

There is no evidence that the call for salvation is selective. In fact the opposite is true.

Romans 10:13 “WHOSOEVER shall call upon the name of the Lord, SHALL be saved.”

This is the whole point of this passage, to show the gratuitous and sovereign choice of God, and that it is this choice which determines salvation.

I disagree. While I agree that no one can come to Jesus on their own knowledge or power, that they have to be called by the Holy Spirit/Word of God, I believe Scripture shows us that all are called, but not all accept the call. Those who accept the call are the elect. I accept all of what Scripture says and I don’t believe it needs to be altered to show what I believe is already there.
7 posted on 08/11/2013 3:52:43 PM PDT by ScubieNuc (When there is no justice in the laws, justice is left to the outlaws.)
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To: ScubieNuc

“he word for “know” or “knew” is the Greek word ginosko which means “to learn to know” or “come to know.”


Strong’s Greek dictionary declares that the meaning in general means Know, perceive, to be aware of, to understand, etc. The obvious meaning being that Christ knows His sheep, and does not come to know His sheep, as if He did not know about them from before the foundation of the world, which is clearly taught in other places. You basically deny your own argument of foreknowledge.

Furthermore, I did not actually argue against God’s general foreknowledge of all things. But used it to prove the difference between the Sheep of God, whom God is said to know, and the reprobate, whom God is said to have “never” known, and thus were strangers to His grace and adoption. Though this only in the sense off familial adoption, and not of His knowing all things, since in other places it is plainly declared that they were known and fitted to destruction from the very beginning.

“The key to this verse is knowing that the Greek words for “come” (as in “shall come to me”) and “cometh” (as in “him that commeth to me”) are different.”


An absurd little statement, and one you must know is also absurd, since you did not touch upon what it means that “all that the Father gives,” do come to the Son, and in the latter verse which declares that it was not given by the Father to the unbelieving Jews. That “coming” in this context means “to believe” is obvious, because Christ says ‘There are some of you that believe not.” And he goes on, ‘Therefore I said unto you, no man can COME unto me unless it is given by the Father.” Thus to come is to believe, and all those who receive it from the Father do believe. And those who do not receive it from the Father, do not believe.

So your argument collapses in on itself due to its own omissions.

“This is AFTER a person has made a commitment for Jesus, not before.”


And this you say without any scriptural proof, denying outright the scriptures which say that no man can call Jesus Lord, but by the Holy Ghost. And in another place, that it is not flesh and blood which revealed to Peter that Jesus is the Christ, but our Father who is in heaven.

Thus the knowledge that Jesus is the Christ comes from God, and all those who learn of the Father do inevitably come to the Son.

You also deny the scripture which says, “Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain: that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you.”(Joh 15:16)

Thus, we can only conclude that our choosing Christ is utterly dependent on Christ choosing us, and not for any good that He foresaw in our future, but for the purpose that we do good.

“They aren’t sheep because they didn’t believe at that point. Nobody is Jesus’s sheep until they believe. The verse doesn’t prove what you think it does.”


Again, you deny the foreknowledge of God, even after using it to explain away such passages. Because if God foreknows His sheep, certainly they must all be His sheep, from His standpoint, from before the foundation of the world, though in time they have not yet been brought forward.

If what you say is true, Christ has no sheep from before the world began, since no one has yet to believe, and Christ’s declaration that they do not believe because they are not His sheep is completely nonsensical, since to not be the sheep is a natural condition, and cannot be an explanation for why they do not believe.

It only makes sense is God both foreknows and predestinates His sheep, so that they are Sheep by His divine grace, and the others are not sheep because He passed them by, leaving them to be “the children of disobedience” and of the devil.

“Christ, but it most certainly doesn’t say that not all people are led to Christ or given a chance to believe.”


You deny the obvious and don’t even attempt to explain the passage in a way that makes sense for your world view. It is self-evident that they do not believe because it was not given to them to believe. What other reason is there to say “you do not believe... therefore I said unto you, no man can come unto me unless it is given by my Father?” According to you, it WAS given to them. So why explain their unbelief with something, you say, doesn’t explain it?

“That verse still doesn’t say anything which would contradict that all people have a chance at salvation. All it illustrates is Christ prayed for different things at different times.”


The passage and, indeed, that entire chapter, most certainly limit salvation to those who are “given by the Father to the Son.” And, certainly, differentiates between those who are given, and those who are not given, as otherwise the whole world is “given.” And as for the claim that only the Apostles are given, in other places Christ plainly declares that He has sheep elsewhere, which He must shortly gather together. So all the sheep of God are those who have been given by the Father to the Son, and all of them must be gathered and will be gathered, with none left behind.

“Verse 30 is expanding on the last part of 29 which talks about those who chose God or the “first born amoung the brethern.” So if you accept Christ THEN you are justified, and glorified.”


This is barely coherent, since you don’t explain why God is said to infallibly justify and glorify all that He calls. Nowhere between verse 29 and 30 is there a phrase which says “and of those who accepted it, or were foreknown to accept it, were called, justified, and glorified.” It simply says that all whom God predestinated and calls are justified and glorified.

“Paul was talking about the difference between Jews and Gentiles. Before Jesus, the Jews had a unique relationship with God, but after Jesus, ALL have the same opportunity for a relationship with God.”


But notice you do not even attempt from the scripture to explain how it is in reference to Jews and Gentiles as groups, even though the immediate context is of the Jews, the seed of Abraham, differentiated between Abraham’s children of the flesh, and Abraham’s children of the promise.

Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called. That is, They which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed.
(Rom 9:7-8)

It is from here that Paul launches into a discussion of the election, of God choosing one over another, according to His own good pleasure.

There are also lots of other inconsistencies with your reading, since you do not even attempt to make a scriptural argument to support your claim, and so you bypass them all without note.

You also ignored all my arguments, and did not even attempt to explain or disprove them. Which, I suspect, is impossible for you to really do in any detailed way, other than by simply asserting that they are wrong.

“Romans 10:13 “WHOSOEVER shall call upon the name of the Lord, SHALL be saved.””


That “whosoever” shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved, does not disprove that only those given by the Father can believe in the Son. After all, both are taught in the scripture. The Gospel is offered freely to all, but its effects are not all equal; it is an instrument of power and salvation to those who do believe, who are the elect, and a ‘savour of death unto death” for those who do not believe, seeing as how they reject such a free and easy forgiveness.

You also put forward that thing which I even took the time to correct myself, the idea that God makes it impossible for those who do not receive special revelation to believe. He simply passes them by, as I said, and they do not believe by their own will.

“but after Jesus, ALL have the same opportunity for a relationship with God.”


But notice the suggestion that exists within such statements as these. Was God unrighteous when He did NOT give that same opportunity to the Gentile world prior to Jesus Christ?

Furthermore, that not all have the same OPPORTUNITY is obvious, because Paul got stopped on the road to Damascus by Christ Himself. Others, in our own day, have not seen Christ, nor even heard of Him, and die all day long without having any opportunity at all to believe the Gospel. And this has been true for 2,000 years. Thus your argument is refuted by the simple facts of reality.


8 posted on 08/11/2013 6:01:06 PM PDT by Greetings_Puny_Humans
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