To: Biggirl; Gamecock
Why weren’t Mary’s parents’ sin passed on to Mary?
8 posted on
07/29/2013 8:01:51 AM PDT by
Alex Murphy
("...Someone handed the keys to the Forum to the OPC and its sympathizers...")
To: Alex Murphy; Biggirl; Gamecock
We don't know the "how" but we know the "why": because she was to be
Kecharitomene. This I know.
For the Bible tells me so.
40 posted on
07/29/2013 8:36:48 AM PDT by
Mrs. Don-o
(Behold the Cross of the Lord! Flee, hostile powers! The Lion of the Tribe of Judah has conquered!)
To: Alex Murphy
Because she was also conceived Immaculately (the feast of the Immaculate Conception is Mary’s day, not Jesus.)
So, Mary was born free of sin, and conceived Jesus without sin, since she was a virgin.
Voila—baby, conceived without sin.
197 posted on
07/31/2013 2:15:45 PM PDT by
Vermont Lt
(Does anybody really know what time it is? Does anybody really care?)
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