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To: Biggirl; Gamecock

Why weren’t Mary’s parents’ sin passed on to Mary?


8 posted on 07/29/2013 8:01:51 AM PDT by Alex Murphy ("...Someone handed the keys to the Forum to the OPC and its sympathizers...")
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To: Alex Murphy; Biggirl; Gamecock
We don't know the "how" but we know the "why": because she was to be Kecharitomene.

This I know.

For the Bible tells me so.

40 posted on 07/29/2013 8:36:48 AM PDT by Mrs. Don-o (Behold the Cross of the Lord! Flee, hostile powers! The Lion of the Tribe of Judah has conquered!)
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To: Alex Murphy

Because she was also conceived Immaculately (the feast of the Immaculate Conception is Mary’s day, not Jesus.)

So, Mary was born free of sin, and conceived Jesus without sin, since she was a virgin.

Voila—baby, conceived without sin.


197 posted on 07/31/2013 2:15:45 PM PDT by Vermont Lt (Does anybody really know what time it is? Does anybody really care?)
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