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To: Greetings_Puny_Humans
By this is meant the Gospel of the grace of God has appeared to all men, but not that all men are the elect of God,...

If you're going to twist Scripture that badly, then there is no way to talk any sense into you. It does NOT say the Gospel has appeared to all men (and it hadn't at the time it was written), it says that the grace that brings salvation has appeared to all men. That is past tense, not future, it it plainly says grace, not gospel.

If you insist on holding on to your twisted view of plain scripture, then please don't reply. I'm done.

66 posted on 06/27/2013 2:54:41 PM PDT by ShadowAce (Linux -- The Ultimate Windows Service Pack)
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To: ShadowAce

“It does NOT say the Gospel has appeared to all men (and it hadn’t at the time it was written), it says that the grace that brings salvation has appeared to all men.”


Whether you call it the Gospel of the grace of God, or just the grace of God, that it “appeared” to the damned and the elect is not debatable. You’re trying to prove so much without addressing the entirety of the scriptures, which you claimed earlier must be interpreted with the aid of those same scriptures.


67 posted on 06/27/2013 2:59:02 PM PDT by Greetings_Puny_Humans
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