Posted on 06/18/2013 2:17:31 AM PDT by dr.proctor
Which occurred first (in chronology)........and the reason you believe that?
[Acts 10:14-28] ....or......[Galatians 2:12]?
Why do you suppose the "Church" went along with this Fairy Tale? They obviously could read the Greek and know that this was never found in scripture. Was it just to keep the folks on their toes (afraid of their shadows).....in line so to speak..... and to keep the collection plates full at Mass?
After all....during the "Dark Ages" only the clergy and the royalty were literate.........the rest would probably believe anything they were told.
Thus Yeshua’s proclamation in his Revelation that he hated the Nicolaitanes. (those that insert themselves between Yeshua and his sheep)
>> “Satan who was never described in Scripture as being in hell at all.” <<
.
Actually, he currently resides in the throne room of Yehova, and when he is cast out, the tribulation begins with his Antichrist standing on the mercy seat of the Arc of the Covenant.
Belief in an after life where souls were punished or rewarded was part of many religions around the Mediterranean, particularly the Greeks.
How can the New Testament be a Greek “translation”, when it was written in Greek originally?
Do you know where I could find that info on the Greek texts re: the baptism? I have heard that, but never been able to locate it. Thank you!
There are folks who say "some" gospels were originally written in Hebrew......early church fathers among them. The gospel of Matthew in particular.
"For of one thing he took especial care, not to omit anything he had heard, and not to put anything fictitious into the statements. [This is what is related by Papias regarding Mark; but with regard to Matthew he has made the following statements]: Matthew put together the oracles [of the Lord] in the Hebrew language, and each one interpreted them as best he could. [The same person uses proofs from the First Epistle of John, and from the Epistle of Peter in like manner. And he also gives another story of a woman who was accused of many sins before the Lord, which is to be fount in the Gospel according to the Hebrews."
And........there are many other writings from early church history suggesting the same.
There is no logical reason to believe that any NT book was originally written in Greek.
They all were written to jews, some of which were in other countries, but all of whom primarily spoke Hebrew, and Hebrew is the only language by which Yehova ever communicated with men. It was once the only language on Earth.
They were all written TO Jews and only Jews??
My first contact with it was Nehemiah Gordon’s writing, but there are an almost endless list of places where the subject is discussed.
http://www.sidroth.org/site/News2?abbr=art_&page=NewsArticle&id=8807&news_iv_ctrl=1054
If you do a search though, you’ll find that most of the sites are owned by nut cases with some other agenda on the side.
The epistles were letters to Jews that had established synogogues in various places. Those synogogues were messianic, and many evangelized to gentiles.
And of course there was Cornelius, the Roman army officer who likely know Greek as well as Latin but not Hebrew.
This is the understatement of the year..........
Hebrew had been the primary language of trade along the eastern metiterranian coast for 1000 years, since the kingdoms of David and Solomon.
Cornelius, being a Roman official, would have been fluent in the local languages. That was the key to the coheasion of the empire.
The existence of Greek MS is evidence only of the political drive to change Christianity into just another pagan religion. They actively cleansed the world of accurate MS in the original language.
Paul certainly was fluent in the common Greek as he spoke in Athens to the philosophers and when Paul wanted to speak to the military commander the man asked Paul if he spoke Greek. But to the crowd in Jerusalem at this point Paul spoke Hebrew.
The common language around the Mediterranean was the koine Greek and the NT was written in Greek as the very oldest mss. show.
“The existence of Greek MS is evidence only of the political drive to change Christianity into just another pagan religion. They actively cleansed the world of accurate MS in the original language.”
A “political drive” by whom? And what was this “original language”? Hebrew?
I think you need to crack the history books and the Bible a bit more.
Dream on.
I'm not saying I disagree.........but wasn't Greek the "Lingua Franca" of the Mediterranean during the first century? It's only what I've been taught and what history tends to support.....so what else do we have to go on?
“The existence of Greek MS is evidence only of the political drive to change Christianity into just another pagan religion. They actively cleansed the world of accurate MS in the original language.”
You make assertions, so who is this “they”? How did “they” cleanse the world of “accurate MS”? When did this occur?
If those questions are too tough Let’s try this one: Who was Alexander the Great?
>> You make assertions, so who is this “they”? <<
.
All things organized by men.
Mystery Babylon, or as Paul put it, “the mystery of iniquity.”
Governments, churches, clubs, corporations.
Yeshua predicted it, and it has done quite a number on the Gospel.
Calling him Jesus instead of his real name, Yehoshua, or calling him a “cristos” instead of the messiah all have the effect of turning the truth into satan’s lie.
Jesus means nothing, while his name says it all: Yehova came to Earth and became a man, and died for our sins. Cristos is the Greek term for a man that becomes a god, which all of their mythical heroes did, so Jesus is just another mythical man that became a god, while Yeshua is God who became a man; large difference.
This switch was done by translating the original Hebrew, first to Aramaic, then to Greek.
>> “Who was Alexander the Great?” <<
.
Alexander was a Danite Hebrew from Macedonia, who performed as most Danites did: defiance of Yehova and his Torah. He gave us Antiochus Eppiphanes, the first model of “Antichrist,” who slaughtered a pig on the altar on Mt. Moriah, and ordered all to cease in using the name of Yehova. This is the genesis of the foolishness that the Rabbis continue to this day, calling him by anything but his name.
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