Why the false dichotomy here?
Jesus describes Christians as "salt" -- salt was a preservative in the fridgeless era. And who indwells Christians enabling them to be "salt"? (Yes, the Holy Spirit)
2 Thess 2 says: 6 And now you know what is holding him back, so that he may be revealed at the proper time. 7 For the secret power of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now holds it back will continue to do so till he is taken out of the way
(This "hinderer" is likely the Holy Spirit of whom Paul speaks)
Think about what is being “given” as a sign here according to your interpretation... the failure of Christians? Have we not been failing our lord now for over 30 years??? Where do you draw the line in biblical terms as to what constitutes “apostacy” on a grand scale enough to signify the eminent revealing of the antichrist?
Ya know when Hitler took over, he was not a ruler of nobody! IOW, a demonic-inspired ruler needs minions to do his bidding; and many of those who did Hitler's bidding were church members!
Likewise 2 Thess 2 "the rebellion" led by a "man of lawlessness" -- and that he would be "religious" in setting himself up "in God's temple." (That's hardly merely forming some new isolated Satanic sect out in left field somewhere):
for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction. 4 He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God’s temple, proclaiming himself to be God. (2 Thess 2)
Remember... we are talking about the end of the age of grace here. Does it really fit in God’s character and history of “signs” to use such a subjective and blurred line-in-the-sand about how poorly His bride is doing on earth???[safrguns]
The New Testament was written during this "age of grace" you are talking about. And how did the NT writers describe this world in conjunction with "the evil one" (Mt. 13:19, 38; 1 John 2:13)?
Well, read on...it's time you start integrating these passages into your "age of grace" theology:
* "...the whole world is under the control of the evil one. (1 John 5:19)
* "...leads the whole world astray. (Rev. 12:9)
* "the god of this age" (2 Cor. 4:4)
You seem to also neglect all the passages in Psalms & the New Testament which describe God's people as simply pilgrims passing thru; aliens from a foreign kingdom; citizens of heaven. This world is not our home. etc.
If you don't know who the usurping god is of this world; who the god of this age is, then, yes, your theology is going to be rather incomplete.
>>> Why the false dichotomy here?
It’s not a false dichotomy... its a rhetorical question.
I assumed you would agree with me, and you did.
The Holy Spirit is the One who holds back the advances of the anti-christ. It illustrates the focus or object of the scripture in as far as WHO is “falling away”.
I don’t follow your references to the ruler of this world as it relates to this scripture.
Clearly we are taught that Satan is the ruler of the world, while we are also taught that the Holy Spirit limits or “holds back” his scope of power and control.
I believe it is important to focus in on WHO is being referenced in the scripture in question.
I would submit that those translations which use the word apostacy are wrong.
Apostacy is a trend... God would not use it as a prophetic event or sign.
God “stepping back” or “leaving” or “falling away” in order to literally allow “all hell to break lose” makes far more sense and fits with other related scriptures on the same event.
Whether or not Christians are removed WITH the Holy Spirit is a separate argument that is not addressed in this particular passage.